The laws may vary in your jurisdiction, but...
In Massachusetts, the person would be charged with a homicide. No matter what the crime was, if the death was the result of the actions of the criminal, they would be charged with a homicide.
Example. If someone was bashed over the head in a store robbery, and later died of brain injuries that would be a homicide. Even though the intent was not to kill the person, the intent was to rob the store. The injury was caused in the commission of the crime. In that same robbery, lets say the store clerk were to have a heart attack. If the heart attack was brought on by the stress of the robbery, that would also be charged as a homicide.
2007-05-26 16:45:37
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answer #1
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answered by mpsliney 1
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Of course! We just saw in the news in the last couple of days the case of a a lady, a lawyer, who was caught in the toxic dust cloud that followed the collapse of the twin towers in NYC on 9/11/2001. She died something like 6 months later. In the last few days her name was added to the list of those killed in the attack! We have seen other cases in which the assailent was FIRST charges with attempted murder, but upon the victim's death, the charges were changed to murder. Like anything else in the law, it depends on the specifics of the case, and the discretion of the DA, and the ruling of the courts. But your question asks, CAN the criminal be charged with homicide? That is a BIG FAT NO DOUBT ABOUT IT ... yes!!!!
2007-05-26 16:26:37
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answer #2
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answered by Just_One_Man's_Opinion 5
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Yes they can. I was on a coroners jury and one of the cases was a man who had died 3 years after being shot during an armed robbery at a store. He had 2 bullets still in his body causing paralysis and this led to his death. The man and woman who had done the robbery were both in jail. We judged his death to be a direct result of the shooting. They were charged and found guilty of homicide.
2007-05-27 01:11:46
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answer #3
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answered by mnwomen 7
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Depending on statute of limitations he can be charged. Weather he is found guilty of murder is another story mainly because the complications probably are not the sole reason the person died. This is assuming the person was found not guilty in the first trial if he was already found guilty on one charge it would constitute double jeopardy.
2007-05-26 16:32:41
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Criminal Record Search Database : http://SearchVerifyInfos.com/Info
2015-10-11 18:12:06
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answer #5
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answered by Abby 1
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yes if the death is directly related to the injuries received by the criminal. i am a retired deputy with 25 years
2007-05-26 22:02:38
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answer #6
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answered by charlsyeh 7
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No, I would think it would be a violation of Habitues Cor pis. The family may be able to sue Civilly but they probably already have.
2007-05-26 16:57:22
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answer #7
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answered by Parrot Bay 4
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Yes, assuming that there is no statute of limitations on murder in the jurisdiction where the crime occurred.
2007-05-26 18:22:02
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes... Unless there is a plea for a lesser charge...
2007-05-26 16:22:31
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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According to "Law & Order" he can. In real life, I don't know.
2007-05-26 16:22:49
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answer #10
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answered by Chance20_m 5
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