Grammatically, when should I use "possesses" and when should I use "is possessed of"?

Question

For example, I have seen both:

"Bob possessed a nice smile."

...and...

"Bob was possessed of a nice smile."

Which is correct, or more correct? Does it make a difference in English and American English? Does it make a difference whether the object is alienable or inalienable?

I think I should have noted that I am looking for any references to specific language rules here, rather than personal opinion on whether it is right or wrong. Thanks for the answers so far, however. I'm also aware that "is possessed by/with..." is not the same as "is possessed of..." and it's only the latter that is relevant to the question.

Answer 1

The former is correct ("Bob possessed a nice smile.) It's not even a matter of which is MORE correct. The latter is not correct at all.

Answer 2

Both uses sound a bit old-fashioned, but 'is possessed of' really is a quaint phrase these days. Some of your correspondents say it is not correct but I think it certainly used to be in England.

'owns' might be a shorter alternative, or in your example I'd say 'Bob had a nice smile'.

'possesses' has a distinctly legal tone to it, in England anyway.

As to the in/alienable option, in my opinion this would not make any difference. But maybe in the States the formalities are different.

Answer 3

The first one is correct. "Was possessed of/by" is normally only used to describe something that possesses a person or thing.... for example, "he was possessed by a strong urge to fight"... If someone is owner of something, then it´s possesses. "He possesses a very charming personality." A charming personality would not¨"possess" a person.

It´s the same thing, just reversed. The only difference is the object or person who is actually in control....

Answer 4

Possessed is the correct form.

Answer 5

The second one is just plain wrong.

Answer 6

"Was possessed of" is not proper grammar...