2007-05-26 10:51:58 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Please ignore maj-len.
Baths fulfilled public demands for hygiene, comfort, recreation, and socialization. The wealthiest Romans had private baths within their villas; public baths were built in any sizable city and also in border towns at which large numbers of solders were stationed. They are comparable, to a degree, to modern public pools.
*update* The Romans didn't invent indoor plumbing or running water -- the Greeks had running water at the palace at Minoa, circa 12,000 BCE.
2007-05-26 13:19:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
While the Romans did basically invent running water and indoor plumbing, it wasn't wide spread. So public baths were set up to give people access to bathing facilities that were supplied by the aqueduct system.
2007-05-26 23:57:22 · answer #2 · answered by rohak1212 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the antique Roman empire the Roman baths were only for the members of the senate of Rome, including the emperors.There they ate and drunk wine lying on sofas and had sex with the women who served them They lived a very immoral life and that was one of the reasons of the end of the Roman empire, to say it simply,but that was just one of the reasons.
2007-05-26 12:56:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Public hygiene.
2007-05-26 11:03:00 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was a place for socialising. And, you know, bathing.
2007-05-28 23:54:17 · answer #5 · answered by ivy_la_sangrienta 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋