If Israel was established to make up for the crimes of Christian Antisemitism, why were the Palestinians evicted from their land rather than the Germans who committed the crime?
2007-05-26 05:03:51 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
Funny... I am a Bachelor in History with a particular interest in Caribbean and Latin American issues. I may not be a scholar but your ad hominem attack fails to impress.
Israel is quite clearly in Palestine. Go and pick up a map from 1947 and compare it with a map from 1948. Now you see Palestine, Now you don't. What happened to the people who lived there? did they all just give up their land for no compensation peacefully?
And for those saying the land was unpopulated y suggest you check out the amount of Palestinians cities that have existed for literally thousands of years.
You like to bully? Debate me, I dare any of you to present a half plausible argument.
2007-05-26 05:59:50 · update #1
and by the way, I put that thumbs up. People ought to pick up more history books. I am on my way to the library to pick up one. What are you doing? watching American Idol, eating mactrash?
2007-05-26 06:01:09 · update #2
I have asked this same question myself, It was the Holocaust of Europe that caused the displaced Israeli settlement to Israel. I think the settlement should have been done with Germany and Poland where the Holocaust happened in the first place. The real reason this didn't happen was because of the Russians and Stalin's Communist block with the Berlin wall, end of story. The Jews and Christians had no real right in taking land away from the Palestinians when they had nothing to do with the Holocaust in the first place. Hence Muslim problems and World peace currently.
2007-05-26 06:17:51 · answer #1 · answered by leonard bruce 6 · 5⤊ 1⤋
You make the assumption that Israel's sole reason for being is to make up for the crimes of the Nazis. That is not true. Thus, the basic premise of your question falls way.
You tell someone to look at a map of the area before 1948. What you seem to fail to mention is that the maps before 1948 do not show an independant state called Palestine but rather a territory of the British Empire called "Palestine". There was never an independant state. And, yes, since Britain relinquished that territory and the State of Israel was established and the Arabs rejected the two state concept, then yes, that "Palestine" ceased to exist.
And no, the Arabs were not evicted from their land, claims notwithstanding.
You know, for someone who claims to be a student of history you seem to know very little of the subject at hand and instead prefer to engage in political propagada. That being the case, I suggest you get a job in academia. You'll do well with your type of view.
2007-05-26 16:32:11 · answer #2 · answered by BMCR 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Palestinians were never a realistic people. They were never registered as such. They have no background before 1948. Israel has been EXACTLY where it is now for the last 3000 years. There is no lying about it. The palestinians are thieves and liars from Syria, Egypt and Jordan. They have no legal claim to that area.
2007-05-26 09:14:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
it is a fact that Jews with the help of England took over Palestine. they killed Man y and terrorized others to leave Palestine and Palestinians made a promise that they'll be back. i don't want to justify terrorist actions however it is not mentioned in the media who started terrorism. England wanted to create instability , divide and conquer. that's the role Israel plays. clearly Israeli es are also a victim and played with . big corporations, IE; military and oil corporations feeding on their blood!
2007-05-27 16:04:20 · answer #4 · answered by macmanf4j 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
israel belonged to the israelites way before any history books, afer being lead by god to the promise land the jews were exiled by the romans, israel belonged to the jews since way back, the palistinians just lived under the controll of britin, it never belonged to them.
2007-05-28 15:58:16 · answer #5 · answered by elad m 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
i bet its too late now, but i dont understand why zionists get so mad when people say that some part of german slesia or pomerania, instead of being given to poland, could have been used to establish a jewish national country.
2007-05-28 02:50:31 · answer #6 · answered by maroc 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Since this premise is incorrect:
"If Israel was established to make up for the crimes of Christian Antisemitism"
The rest of your question is not relevant.
2007-05-26 05:11:56 · answer #7 · answered by gcbtrading 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋
Why aren't the Palestinians in Trans-Jordan.
That's where they came from.
Most Israeli's were born in Israel,
Why should they leave ?
But you could just as well ask.
Why aren't White Americans in Europe?
Why aren't black Americans in Africa
Why aren't Hispanic Americans in Central America
Why aren't Asian Americans in Asia?
Why aren't Canadians in Europe
Why aren't Australians in England.
Are, is OK for them to live where they live, but not the Israeli's ?
2007-05-26 05:46:11 · answer #8 · answered by jeeper_peeper321 7 · 2⤊ 5⤋
You need to pick up a history book.
2007-05-26 05:07:47 · answer #9 · answered by Jace 4 · 1⤊ 4⤋
I agree with Jace!
2007-05-26 05:11:11 · answer #10 · answered by Wounded Duck 7 · 1⤊ 4⤋