is one party allowed to go against the terms of the contract afterwards? The clauses of the contract when we were buying our house stated that the sellers would be eligible to pay for some rebuilding works once we have moved in, both of us signed to this agreement, now they are trying to get out of paying. We are in England, UK.
2007-05-26 04:21:35 · 8 answers · asked by MissEssex 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I think you probably mean liable, rather than eligible. If the rebuilding works were specified and enumerated, rather than referred to in vague and general terms, and you signed the contract in the expectation that those works would be carried out by the vendors, then it should be possible to sue them for specific performance under the terms of the contract. Not knowing precisely what is in the contract, I can't be more helpful than that.
2007-05-26 04:44:45 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, you could contact an attorney to have it professionally done, depending on the nature of the contract this may be advisable but expensive. You could also have a notary public witness the signing and then notarize all copies. Most banks will notorize documents for free if you hold an account there, some may charge a small fee if not. Also, many courts will recognize verbal and written contracts as legally standing evidence in civil suits if a contract were to be broken, so check with your local statutes. I'm not an attorney but I have had plenty of dealings with various court and legal matters, so I give you this answer from issues of my own personal experiences.
2016-05-18 02:21:03 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi,
From what you say you have a case for breach of contract and you should be able to demand specific performance. This means the court will order the contracting party to carry out the works described in the contract in a timely manner.
As Caicos has correctly pointed out, without knowing the full content of the contract it is vey difficult to comment.
You need to talk to your solicitors.
2007-05-26 22:09:21 · answer #3 · answered by LYN W 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it's a legally binding contract then the party that has undertaken to do something is legally bound to do it - that's what 'legally binding' means! But if the seller is only 'eligible' to do the building work it means that he or she can choose whether to do it or not. If you're in doubt I suggest you show the contract to the Citizens Advice Bureau and see what they say. Good luck!
2007-05-26 04:31:39 · answer #4 · answered by yprifathro 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Do you mean eligible or Liable, if its eligable its up to them if it says liable they have to pay...However without knowing full details it is impossible to give a full and correct answer, I should imagine when the contracts were drawn up your solicitor should have had this covered, if not he could be liable because he has not done his job properly. so I advise seeing a solicitor.
Good luck
2007-05-26 04:31:20 · answer #5 · answered by David 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read your contract carefully. If it only says "elligible" then no they don't have to pay it at all. Read!
2007-05-26 04:24:35 · answer #6 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
your best bet, would be to go and see a lawyer,they will help you all the way, also your local citizen advice office,they will help,hope it all works out for you, all the best
2007-05-26 16:23:15 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
you should have waited for a Home Improvement Pack,
2007-05-26 05:10:01 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋