why the most civilized nations (like Egypttions) in the past are no longer the most civilized?
and why the less civilized( like scandinavians) in the past are the most civilized now??
2007-05-25 02:55:35 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
If you read your history you would know why,
it`s all to do with the transition of power and technology
2007-05-25 02:59:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In a world of wars, transient populations, changing cultures and mass migration, all cultures are subject to change and each country does so at differing speeds. Some have become so advanced technologically but are lacking in any depth of culture within their societies...others are considered underdeveloped but have a great 'family' feel about them as families stick together due to lack of easy transportation to other parts..
I cannot think of any country I would really call civilised.....every country has its ups and downs, its dictators, underdogs, classes and defences (or armies of war).
Progress 'happens' and it can be good or bad.
Best wishes, Mike.
2007-05-25 10:09:23 · answer #2 · answered by georgiansilver 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't think ur really being fair because you can't judge how civilised pple are by reading books.. you have to get 1st hand info....live there for some time then ask this question again personally i thnk everyone is civilised relative to their own concepts.
2007-05-27 09:26:43 · answer #3 · answered by chub 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The most civilised of all don't need postcodes, because people still actually talk to each other.
2007-05-25 10:15:07 · answer #4 · answered by Orla C 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think you can judge a whole country on how civilised it is, it's more about the individuals within the country.
2007-05-25 10:00:09 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋