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don't prove by observation. use properties of prime numbers and arithmetic progression.
prove by contradiction if possible.

2007-05-24 19:34:50 · 6 answers · asked by mathiphy 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

n th term of AP is a +(n-1) d

Consider the case a is positive integer


Then when n = a+1

a will be a factor of a +(n-1) d & hence it will not be a prime

Then consider a is negetive interger then also when (n-1) becomes -a , it will have a factor

a & d can not be fractions since all terms must be whole numbers


Hence no set of prime numbers will fall on an AP series

Examples

3,5,7,(9) ..... It terminated with 9
3,7,11,(15) .............................15
3,11,19,(27)...............................27
3,13,23,(33)...............................33
5,11,17,23,29,(35).....................35

2007-05-24 21:10:11 · answer #1 · answered by RAJASEKHAR P 4 · 0 3

Assume a, a + r, a + 2r, a + 3r... is an arithmetic progression with all prime numbers. Then "a" has to be prime, which means it's an integer. Similarly, r has to be an integer, in order for both a and a+r to be integers (let alone prime).

Since the coefficients in front of r follow the series 1, 2, 3, ..., then eventually in the series, you'll find the term a + a*r. This is divisible by a, and thus isn't prime. So no arithmetic progression can be a set of all prime numbers, because eventually there will be a term that's a multiple of the first term.

2007-05-25 03:05:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Proof by contradiction:

The general form of an Arithmetic Progression, where the first term is a and the common diference is d

a, a + d, a + 2d.

List the first few primes:

2, 3, 5, 7, 11

Here, a = 2
d = 3 - 2 = 1

But the difference between the third and second term is 5 - 3 = 2

Which contradicts the fact that d = 1, which was derived from the first two terms.

We get this contradiction because what we assumed is wrong. Hence, No Arithmetic Progression can consist only of Prime numbers.

2007-05-25 02:54:36 · answer #3 · answered by Akilesh - Internet Undertaker 7 · 0 4

Proof by contradiction.
Assume such a progression exists. It can be described as:

a, a+n, a+2n, a+3n, ... where n is the common difference and all the terms are prime
At some point, the term a + an will arise.
a+an = a(1+n) and is therefore not prime.
Contradiction.

NOTE that n≠0 is an unmentioned premise of the problem or else (degenerate) progressions do exist!
2, 2, 2, 2, 2, .... for example.
Also, n<0 is impossible as terms would become negative eventually and there are no 'negative' primes.

ksoileau I disagree. your "touchups" are superfluous.
They are either unnecessary for the proof to work or implied by the problem or definitions of terms.

2007-05-25 02:46:34 · answer #4 · answered by Scott R 6 · 5 2

Zaphod is nearly right, just needs a slight touchup to the proof:

Proof by contradiction.
Assume such a progression exists. It can be described as:
a, a+n, a+2n, a+3n, ... where
* n>0 *
is the common difference and all the terms are prime
* and a>1 since a is prime. *
At some point, the term a + an will arise.
a+an = a(1+n)
* and since a>1 and 1+n>1, *
a+an is therefore not prime.
Contradiction.

2007-05-25 03:03:26 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

Consider a series
a1, a1 + d, a1 + 2d etc etc

In order for all these terms to be prime,
1) d must be even
2) an must all be odd
3) a1 must be a positive odd integer >= 3

So the n+1 th term is a1 + n*d
since n = 1,2,3,
there must be a value of n, k such that k = a1
and thus a_k+1 = a1 + a1*d = a1*(1+d)
So this particular term is not prime.

2007-05-25 02:47:20 · answer #6 · answered by Dr D 7 · 1 3

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