2007-05-24 09:48:07 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
The final PROOF of GOD"S omnipotence is that God doesn't NEED to exist to SAVE!!!!!!!!!!
2007-05-25 06:55:04 · answer #1 · answered by someone 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The question here can be considered a question about logic. In classical or Aristotelian logic an entity either does or does not exist. This is known as the law of excluded middle . In alternative forms of logic, including the quantum logic interpretation of Quantum mechanics, fuzzy logic etc. an attribute may be both said to apply and not to apply to an object but only in a sense that does not violate the law of non-contradiction (i.e. that A and not A are not both unconditionally true at the same time).
On a logical interpretation, you would be able to say God exists and does not exist only if you were using some non-Aristotelian form of logic which sufficiently adjusts the logical import of the existence operator, predication, or the conjuction operator so as to avoid violating the law of non-contradiction, which is a logical absolute.
Another way of looking at the question is the traditional theological doctrine of the via negativa, in which no humanly conceivable concepts, including existence as we understand it, properly apply to God. This view would deny that the statements 'God exists' or 'God does not exist' can be true of God.
2007-05-24 17:12:39 · answer #2 · answered by Thucydides 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am not a philosopher but in a practical sense God (with a capital G) does not exist for a child who does not know about Him nor does he exist for an atheist. Yet He, at the same time, exists for those who claim or have claimed a direct revelation from him. Since there is no concrete proof of his absolute existence acceptable to all He does exist or doesn't exist at the same time in the minds of conscious humans.
2007-05-24 17:38:22 · answer #3 · answered by Mad Mac 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No God exists or does not. Schrodinger's cat only deals with possibilities that are unknown until revealed. As we are a "subset" of God it wouldn't apply.
2007-05-24 17:03:52 · answer #4 · answered by John L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if one beliefs in a god, doesn't that god exist, even if only in that persons thoughts? therefore the god would exist yet not exist
2007-05-24 17:34:44 · answer #5 · answered by imapirateaarr 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, it would be like saying that "you" exist and don't exist at the same time.
2007-05-24 16:58:36 · answer #6 · answered by Maya A 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
There is no god. The question is moot.
2007-05-24 17:15:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh, wow, man, like that is soooooooo deep.
Yipes.
2007-05-24 16:55:52 · answer #8 · answered by chumley 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋