plz help me.
2007-05-23 12:19:49 · 7 answers · asked by eelyak 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Only for right triangles. The pythagorean theorem is actually just a part of the law of cosines which is:
c^2=a^2+b^2-2(a)(b)cosC
cos(90)=0, so that part is gone and leaves:
c^2=a^2+b^2
the pythagorean theorem.
2007-05-23 12:22:09 · answer #1 · answered by jsoos 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Only for right triangles is the Pythagorean theorem true.
2007-05-23 12:22:25 · answer #2 · answered by Robert L 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Pythagorean formula is a special case of the law of cosines (you can look up the law of cosines on the internet) in which the triangle is a right triangle. The law of cosines holds for any triangle.
2007-05-23 12:24:20 · answer #3 · answered by Jon S 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the pythagorean theorem only works for right triangles, for other trianges you must use the law of cosines (a^2=b^2+c^2-2bccosA) because of the angles in the triangle
2007-05-23 12:24:03 · answer #4 · answered by Lorelai 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Right triangles only
2007-05-23 12:24:43 · answer #5 · answered by kellenraid 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. Just for rectangle triangles
2007-05-23 12:22:27 · answer #6 · answered by mimi 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
i don't really remember i think it's not b/c they're something sry couldn't help more
2007-05-23 12:22:39 · answer #7 · answered by ♥~Jeff Hardy's babe~♥ 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋