OK, a fun maths question...lets see who gets it , 2=1?

Question

I got a lot of sarcastic responces last time, so this time I bit less challenging, Ok

Does 2 = 1?

a=b
a*a=b*a
a^2=ab
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
(a-b)(a+b)=b(a-b)
a+b=b
b+b=b
2b=b

therefore, 2=1

Find the fallacy:

Answer 1

In step 6, you're dividing by 0.

a-b = 0 where a=b.

Answer 2

It works if the values of 2 and 1 are defined as equal. Since you did not do so, then it has to be such that 2 is not equal to 1 - but twice 1's value. Therefore, since one is twice the value of the second, your original equation is wrong. To account for value, 'a' must be defined as '2b' at the onset:

a=2b
a*a = 2b * a
a^2 = 2ab
a^2 - b^2 = 2ab * b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(2a - b)

At this point, nothing can cancel on both sides, thus there is no finality to draw towards. This would mean that this proof can't support your assertion.

On a simpler thought, if you replace "a" and "b" with the values of 1 and 2, follow your proof, it would look like this:

2=1
2*2 = 1*2 (already wrong, as 4 does not equal 2)
2^2 = 1*2
2^2 - 1^2 = 1*2 - 1^2
(2-1)(2+1) = 1(2-1)
2+1 = 1
1+1 = 1
2(1) = 1

This entire proof, as values are not equal to begin with, invalidates your claim, and is the fallacy.

Answer 3

Dude, you got a A+ on an algebra test! You're a champion! Seriously, they might be laughing at you now, but you know, in 10 years they'll be working under you or probably working at McDonalds. So who really cares what they say? Just ignore them. Or if you feel the need to reply, just tell them being a nerd is better than being a dumbass. Even though you're not a nerd, there's nothing wrong with being a nerd. Being a nerd means you're smart, right? I'd take that as a compliment. Being smart is awesome. Anyone who thinks that being smart is lame is obviously a stupid bogan who is going nowhere in life and has no intellect. Edit: Haha, just remembered a quote from Bi;l Gates. ''Be nice to nerds. One day you'll be working for them.''

Answer 4

a=b=0

Answer 5

2 does not equal one 1 is 1 and 2 is 2 the same as a is a and b is b. 2 is only 1 in a musical notation of octave stucture corresponding to the higher or lower frequency to which an individual note is played.

Answer 6

Since a = b, a-b = 0, so you divided by 0.

Answer 7

If you assume dat 2=1 then it is indeed correct because the definition of equal sign never loses its essence regardless of the symbols you use.

Answer 8

a-b=0 since a=b. We all know youc ant divide by 0 you get infinite! There lies the problem, simple

Answer 9

Cool.
As you premise is that a=b, when you divide by a-b in line 5 you are dividing by zero, which makes anything possible.

Answer 10

omg sarcastic answers! No wonder .....

However....

IF a=b
AND a*a=b*a
THEN a^2=ab
THERFOR a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
SO (a-b)(a+b)=b(a-b)
HOWEVER IF a+b=b
AND b+b=b
THEN 2b=b

well the answer must be 2=1
However it could also mean that

(a-b)(a+b)=b(a-b)
a+b=b
b+b=b
2b=b

so this could mean that

a=b
a*a=b*a
a^2=ab
a^2-b

However i have come to the conclusion that


=ab-b^2
(a-b)(a+b)=b(a-b)
a+b=b
b+b=b
2b=b


so i have worked out that I.................







Really....................



Really.....................









Dont













know the answer..................


but if i did



a=b*a
a^2=ab
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
(a-b)(



and then did this




2=ab
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
(a-b








i still wouldnt know the answer










is that sarcastic enough for ya!!!!







lol