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Is this statement valid/invalid? Why?

2007-05-23 05:58:45 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

6 answers

Its valid,
when the roman emperor constintine became christian the roman empire became christian,
Christians are peaceful,peaceful people are unfortunately easier targets.
.

2007-05-23 07:02:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There is an economic basis to argue that this statement is valid.

One of the things that was truly different about the Christian ethos in comparison to the various pagan ones that proceeded it was its universality. Pagan gods were very culture specific and offered redemption, blessing etc to their chosen people. Anyone outside that culture however was a lesser being. He or she was not favoured by the gods and therefore was expendable. It went along way to establishing a hierarchy in society that allowed for the mass use of slavery to build temples, roads, aquaducts etc. It was less the army than those public works that made Rome great and when Christianity came to the fore, that economic system dependant on mass enslavement was compromised.

The reason why this system was compromised had nothing to do with a Christianity deeming slavery a sin. In fact Paul had even councilled slaves to be obediant and submissive to their masters on the argument God commanded all men respect the authorities placed over them in the fourth commandment (Honour thy father and mother....) Instead what Christianity did was teach that divine blessing and salvation was available to all people and not just some chosen race. To believe meant that you were ready to go out and save others. Not just write them off as had been done centuries before. So instead of going out to conquer people and bring them back as slaves for the continued glory of the people who were the Roman Empire, the Empire went out trying to turn everyone into Romans. Missionaries went out to convert the subject and neighouring nations. They welcomed the barbarians into their realm and tried to convert them. All together this made it so there was more and more people that were after the literate and civilized lifestyle of a Roman citizen and a dwindling supply of slaves to do the dirty work to make that happen. In that fact alone, that was where the Roman Empire began it's decline.

Hope I helped.

2007-05-23 14:30:21 · answer #2 · answered by Johnny Canuck 4 · 0 0

While the above is true it misses the essential irony that while the Roman Empire either 'fell' or 'moved' depending on who you asked, the Christian faith became the dominant ideal throughout Western Europe during the 4th, 5th, 6th centuries and beyond ...

Byzantium, the Roman Empire in Constantinople, reached its peak during the 6th century (Emp. Justinian) and the church in Western Europe became the one and only source of organization, literacy and focus.

Most people point to 476 as the end of the Roman Empire but Christianity continued.

2007-05-23 13:25:11 · answer #3 · answered by John B 7 · 0 0

Christianity is absolutely a link. People who became Christians tended to be pacifists so there were fewer people to join the army. Money once used for the Roman Empire was now being used to build churches. Inadequate army, no more conquering, no more income for the empire.

2007-05-23 13:29:54 · answer #4 · answered by staisil 7 · 0 0

Once Christianity was adopted by the aristocracy of Rome, it was inevitable that it would spread where Rome spread.

2007-05-23 13:13:01 · answer #5 · answered by lockedjew 5 · 0 0

their appeal

2007-05-23 13:01:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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