bit of both!!!
2007-05-22 21:47:58
·
answer #1
·
answered by lilian c 5
·
1⤊
0⤋
Well history is just a story.
Some people have trouble believing that the egyptians built the pyramids and so believe it was UFOs
Shakespeare was uneducated, so we believe he can't write what he wrote.
Firstly, he had no idea for plots. Most of his plots were lifted from other stories (Julius Ceaser's plot was taken from a popular book of the time) and some of his less well known plays have almost no sensible plot.
He works were forgotten for many years and rediscovered in the 19th century with his plays being constructed from various sources, with certain different versions being ignored by so call "experts".
The great shakespeare debate seems a little bit silly to me. It is possible that a young man, exposed to the write environment could learn vast numbers of words (60-80 thousand, vs normal person 40 thousand), or it may be that his works take things from many people. An uneducated person in India found a maths text book, taught himself maths and went on to international fame with his mathematical genius....so it is possible. Maybe Shakespeare had the ability to learn words more easily than other people.
The fact is, that there is no strong historical evidence for it either way.
2007-05-22 22:01:35
·
answer #2
·
answered by flingebunt 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
Illiterate? Why would he be illiterate when he published his two poems Venus and Adonis and the Rape of Lucrece?
Uneducated: it means that he never went to university. He was not the only playwright not to. But he had a good grammar school education, with "little Latin and less Greek", which is more than most of us here...
As for plagiarism, it is another subject. He did not invent his stories but re-wrote stories written by other people, near contemporaries or classics. But again, this is not particular to Shakespeare but to the whole period.
Edit: and to correct something said by someone else, his works were NOT forgotten and rediscovered in the 19th C. In fact, he plays were read, re-written and performed at the end of the 17th C. The myth of Shakespeare "the bard" was created mainly in the 18th C, when he was also translated in many foreign languages.
2007-05-22 23:15:58
·
answer #3
·
answered by Lady Annabella-VInylist 7
·
0⤊
1⤋
No doubt Shakespeare, also allegorically Shakesphere, etc, was contemporary with King James, and had the same royal favor as Translators of the Bible. Yet he is not listed among the translators, who were bishops and learned men all. Yet I suspect the mention of the King attending church daily, was perhaps allegory for a daily pub gathering, like a think tank of thinkers; For thinking was not allowed in either Roman Catholic or Protestant churches in those dark (law) days. So then, perhaps Shakespeare attended this daily think tank, and being a master of allegory, helped out in that manner with the translation process, which was simply making a seventh bible from six good already made, and doing it in accordance with translation guidelines, to preserve the allegory and the mystery thereof. A Bible was found in the attic of Shakespeare's home, which was not common in those days among the common people. Paul says it's all "allegory" in both "covenants": Galatians 4 Paul, as faithful steward of the mysteries, also says it's a triple mystery: Colossians 2:2. And Paul writes more of the NT than all six other NT writers combined; Also ends the Holy Bible containing Old and New Testaments with his token, notably written by his own hand, to sign-ify his authorship of Revelation. Selah. Shakespeare says: "all the worlds a stage", for the biblical God Shew; And every man plays a part therein, one man playing seven parts in his time. I wonder which one man plays seven parts in his time? -Babe--> -Child--> -more the Child of hell--> made one proselyte -Child of God--> God on high -or- higher God? -Man--> a man puts away childish things(?) -Perfect Man--> Christlike, but which Christ? -God is not a Man; so be reconciled unto God The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.
2016-05-20 12:00:52
·
answer #4
·
answered by jackie 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Shakespeare was a great dramatist as well as poet. He had written various dramas such as Macbeth, which will ever remain original with the name of Shakespeare. I don't think that he had copied it out or stolen plots and characters from other poets, such as Beacon, who was his contemporary. None has any word to say against the originality of drams and arts written by Shakespeare. He was marvelous I love him. He died in 1616 and in t he year after almost 400 years his dramas still charm us and we have great regard for him.
2007-05-22 21:51:18
·
answer #5
·
answered by ? 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
Really? Lots of evidence to say he was illiterate? Care to cite any of this evidence.
I have heard this stuff before and I have to say it's mostly idiotic claptrap written by people who want to discredit the English language's greatest writer with false accusations of plagiarism and illiteracy for reasons I cannot even begin to fathom.
2007-05-23 04:46:32
·
answer #6
·
answered by dontresca 2
·
2⤊
1⤋
It has been pretty well established that he got most of his ideas off the internet. Christopher Marlowe's name has been bandied about, but most scholars credit William Shakespeare as being the legitimate author.
2007-05-22 21:49:19
·
answer #7
·
answered by enzyme 305 3
·
2⤊
0⤋
you ever look at history and see how many great influential ppl were illeterate. two i know of off the top of my head are joseph smith and muhammad. both are religious leaders who wrote a bible and were for the most part illeterate. now they have millions of followers.
shakespeare wrote some plays, i dont think many converted to shakespearianism.
2007-05-22 21:50:40
·
answer #8
·
answered by J G 4
·
0⤊
1⤋