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If not, when was the law changed?

Is this law presently in effect in any other state?

Is the law the same standard for a wife killing a husband?

This question is not relating to any mental instability defense (temp. insanity, heat of the moment....). This question is regaurding the actual written state law.

Thanx

2007-05-22 20:26:38 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

This law was in effect and used within the past 10 years.

I am not questioning the morals of Texans. I have no problem with the people of Texas.

This is not a question having to do with the bible or religion. I am not questioning the faith or character of the Texas people.

Legal question....simple. Take it easy...no need to attack me. I am not hateful, just curious.

2007-05-22 20:42:26 · update #1

3 answers

it has never been legal to kill anyone in any state without express orders of the court, i.e. authority given that responsibility.

Texas was one of the few states that did recognize catching someone in bed was a crime of passion and did not require mental evaluation to use as a defense.

If you think any thing different for what ever reason you are incorrect.

Texas is also the only state I know of that says if you spend one night with a woman as your wife, she has the rights of a wife.

Be careful and listen to what people tell you. The answer won't change no matter how many times you ask.

2007-05-25 07:04:11 · answer #1 · answered by Caretaker 7 · 0 0

That was repealed when it became legal for anyone to kill a Texan for being a Texan.

This rectified the only omission from the bill of rights and affects people the whole world over.

A stupid question deserves a stupid answer.
.

2007-05-22 20:34:44 · answer #2 · answered by Ratsoo 3 · 0 0

UM..........I'm from Texas, and NO! I would HOPE you are not having a moment of insanity! Ha! We are not THAT imbred!

2007-05-22 20:30:40 · answer #3 · answered by Kingston's Mommy 4 · 0 0

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