if a hitter swings on strike 3 and the catcher misses the pitch, the hitter is allowed to run to first base. Why is that?
2007-05-22 06:59:10 · 9 answers · asked by ceez 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
The eligible-to-try-taking-first option is not always in effect; only if (a) first base is unoccupied or (b) there are two outs (regardless of any baserunners).
The third strike concludes the batter's plate appearance, but if the catcher doesn't handle the ball cleanly (drops or misses it), then the putout has not yet been recorded. The catcher cannot purposely try to muff the ball, and perhaps get a double play or retire a better runner already on the bases, by virtue of the "first base open" requirement.
It's detailed in Rule 6.09(b): The third strike called by the umpire is not caught, providing (1) first base is unoccupied, or (2) first base is occupied with two out.
2007-05-22 07:09:15 · answer #1 · answered by Chipmaker Authentic 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Because that's the way the rules are. Technically, the batter becomes a runner on every third strike or fourth ball. Of course, on the third strike, he is out as soon as the catcher catches the pitch.
The batter is automatically out on an uncaught third strike when there is a runner on first and less than two outs. This exception is to protect the offense from the catcher's dropping the pitch intentionally to set up a double play.
2007-05-22 07:52:11 · answer #2 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The reason that the batter can still run is because on any pitch the ball is considered in play. This is the reason baserunners can advance on a wild pitch or passed ball. On a swung third strike, the at bat is over. But if the ball gets away from the catcher and the batter advances to first safely, it is considered an error on the catcher and the strikeout does not count.
2007-05-22 07:28:14 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only of it is a dropped 3rd strike may the batter run to first, and only if 1st base in not occupied by another runner. Just one of those rules in baseball.
2007-05-22 07:04:58 · answer #4 · answered by greenhat1981 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its a baseball rule. technically the batter is not out because the out isn't recorded until the ball is caught. since the ball is dropped, it acts like a hit and the runner can try and advance to first, which is why the catcher can tag / throw the ball to first. once dropped, the ball is in play and is treated like any other ball in play
2007-05-22 07:05:23 · answer #5 · answered by TheSandMan 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Only if the ball bypasses the catcher. ie.. A passed ball. Then the runner is not out until tagged at 1st base.
2007-05-22 07:06:34 · answer #6 · answered by smithpe36 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because the if the catcher cant catch the ball then the batter has the option to run, but no one ever does because all the players are fat or old.
2007-05-22 07:27:39 · answer #7 · answered by Sir Nelson 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Because if the third strike isn't caught, the batter technically isn't out.
And it's not called stealing first.
2007-05-22 07:06:03 · answer #8 · answered by GOB BLUTH 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because it is stealing first base and that is the way the rules are
2007-05-22 07:03:22 · answer #9 · answered by brittevans13 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋