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For a function, how can a limit fail to exist, yet be continuous.

2007-05-21 19:38:55 · 4 answers · asked by alwayzsketching 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

Singapore

When there is a spike in the graph.

2007-05-21 19:41:41 · answer #1 · answered by sky_blue 1 · 0 0

You need to go back to the definition of 'continuity'. A function is 'continuous' at a point c iff for some ε such that |f(x) - f(c)| < ε there exists a δ such that |x - c| < δ. This presupposes that f(c) is defined. But, even if it isn't, it *is* defined for all x not equal to c so there is some interval around c+ or c- as they approach c in which the function is continuous.

This is a kind of poor example, but think of it as 'stepping stones' on a garden path. As you walk along the path, you suddenly come to a stone that's 'missing'. But you knjow where it would be 'if it was there'. It's the same for something like f(c) = (x²-1)/(x-1). For all x not equal to 1, the function has the value x+1. But at x = 1 there's a 'hole' in the function since, at x=1, (x-1) is zero so the function is undefined.

HTH

Doug

2007-05-22 03:01:04 · answer #2 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

if theres a hole in the line but a solid point existing at the same x value but different y value.

2007-05-22 02:47:33 · answer #3 · answered by fsu-boy 2 · 0 0

it can't.

functions can be continuous at a point but not differentiable at the point, but that is not what you are asking.

2007-05-22 03:01:53 · answer #4 · answered by cp_exit_105 4 · 0 0

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