You are only a rapist if the you have sex with a person against their will. That is the definition of rape. Marriage has nothing to do with it. If you have sex with your wife against her will, it is still rape. Rape is rape.
2007-05-21 06:51:44
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answer #1
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answered by Mr. Taco 7
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Marriage is usually the legal and moral thing to do for people to have sex without feeling used and guilty. What happens in most cases is that when people( married or single) do not consent to the act then it's called rape.
2007-05-21 06:55:01
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answer #2
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answered by Addicted2GRACE 3
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Get a dictionary and look up the words; love , respect, consent, rape and no! This is the United States where women have rights, married or not. Stop fixating on sex!
2007-05-21 08:52:56
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answer #3
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answered by tab2732 2
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Elements of a marriage commitment are: [1] free, [2] total, [3] faithful, and [4] open to children. These are the commitments that spouses must renew each time they have sex.
“Free”. Any way that a husband or wife might manipulate of coerce a spouse to have sexual relations would be a violation of the freedom in their union. A clear example would be ’marital rape.’ Yet we’re not talking only about such an extreme situation. The true freedom of love is also violated when spouses use sex as a tool in their relationship for some other end. Perhaps sex is employed to gain power or control in the relationship. Perhaps it’s offered as a “reward” for something else or withheld as a “punishment”. None of this kind of behavior says, “I want to give myself to you freely to affirm you r goodness and our marriage commitment.”
“Total” The climax of the sexual act shouts loudly and clearly, “Take me. I’m totally yours. I’m holding nothing back.” That ecstatic moment reflects the unreserved surrender of our persons and the unreserved receptivity of the unreserved surrender of our persons and the unreserved receptivity of the other. To the degree that we knowingly and intentionally reserve any part of ourselves from our spouse in the sexual act, we cannot speak of a total self-giving.
Perhaps one spouse is emotionally distant from or cold toward the other. Perhaps both spouses are deliberately refusing to be transparent and vulnerable with each other. Perhaps they’re not giving themselves to each other in climax at all. Such is the case when one or the other spouse intentionally seeks orgasm apart from the act of normal intercourse. The acts by which spouses loving prepare each other for genital intercourse (foreplay) are honorable and good. But stimulation of each other’s genitals to the point of climax apart from an act of normal intercourse is nothing other than mutual masturbation. There’s no gift of self, no marital communion taking place at all. Nor are such acts open to conception.
2007-05-21 11:02:07
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answer #4
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answered by Giggly Giraffe 7
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It's only rape if one party does not or cannot consent. I think, for the most part, sex within marriage is consensual, and therefore not rape, although spousal rape does occur.
2007-05-21 10:33:32
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answer #5
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answered by ☭ 4
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No need for a license to have sex you just need consent from all people involved.
2007-05-21 06:58:25
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answer #6
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answered by ecogeek4ever 6
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you've been psychoANALyzed & the prognosis is that u haven't gotten laid in a long time. Find yourself an online GF but u will need to type swiftly with one hand.
2007-05-21 06:57:54
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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lol,10/10,unbelievable tale. I easily have have been given this little tale on a scroll and the Italian one too. Did you hear the single with regard to the Italian?. Now..... that one is humorous. thank you for sharing.
2016-12-29 17:16:42
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answer #8
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answered by sehorn 3
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HUH? It's only rape when someone doesn't consent. Men are no longer legally allowed to rape their wives.
2007-05-21 06:55:38
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answer #9
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answered by Rio Madeira 7
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WHAT???????? because its consensual sex (both people agree) therefore its not rape
2007-05-21 06:52:51
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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