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if I have a expression like this one (x^-4 over x^-7)^-1 this would not be the same as 1 over x^3 would it? Or does it equal 1/x^3

2007-05-21 05:56:44 · 9 answers · asked by mamacitasue 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

it's equal to 1/x^3..

2007-05-21 05:59:57 · answer #1 · answered by Yssa A 3 · 0 0

Yes it is the same, if you do the simplification in steps it becomes easier to see.
Step1. start by simplifying x^-4 over x^-7 which is 1 over x^-3 or just x^3 by subtracting exponents and then noticing that you have a negative exponent in the denominator means you can bring it to the top as a positive exponent.
Step2. now apply the outer part of the function. Take the simplified expression from step1 and raise it to the -1.
(x^3)^-1 and when you have a power to a power you multiply them and come out with x^-3 which is equivalent to 1 over x^3

2007-05-21 13:11:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

X^-3, 1/(X^3) and (1/X)^-3 are all right and are all the same thing

2007-05-21 13:03:15 · answer #3 · answered by yerffej89 3 · 0 0

it's equal to 1/(x^3)

2007-05-21 13:02:16 · answer #4 · answered by anggira dhita 2 · 0 0

I would take the -1 power and put it with each exponent first. By doing that you multiply exponents and your problem becomes x^4/x^7 and when reduced 1/x^3.

2007-05-21 13:00:56 · answer #5 · answered by lizzie 3 · 0 0

= [ x^(-4) / x^(-7) ] ^(-1)
= [ x^(7) / x^(4) ] ^(-1)
= [ x³ ] ^(-1)
= 1 / x³

2007-05-21 13:15:59 · answer #6 · answered by Como 7 · 0 0

[(x^-4) / (x^-7) ]-1 = (x^-7) / (x^-4) = x^(-7 - -4) = x^-3

2007-05-21 13:05:00 · answer #7 · answered by welcome news 6 · 0 0

(x^-4/x^-7)^-1
since they both have a negative exponent you switch them
(x^7/x^4)^-1
(x^3)^-1
you multiply the exponents
x^-3
which equals 1/x^3

2007-05-21 13:00:34 · answer #8 · answered by jay gal 3 · 0 0

You are correct: x^-3

2007-05-21 13:00:56 · answer #9 · answered by CyberDude 2 · 0 0

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