2007-05-19 20:34:56 · 6 answers · asked by roben d 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
28/52 = 0.538461538.... of a year
2007-05-19 20:46:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
ok, you see. 28 weeks is equal to 28x7=196days.
then, 1 year =365days
196/365years = (since this is the lowest fraction, this is the answer!)
or you can do it another way.
1 year is 12months
28weeks =7 months
7/12 months
i am not sure as i am only a p6 student.
2007-05-20 04:05:51 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
52 weeks in a year.
So this becomes 28/52 or 7/13 of one year.
2007-05-20 04:01:40 · answer #3 · answered by DOUGLAS M 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
28*7/365 = 0.5369863 yr
2007-05-20 03:48:09 · answer #4 · answered by Helmut 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1 year = 52.177457 weeks
28 weeks / x years = 52.177557 weeks / 1 year
Cross Multiply
28 = 52.177557x
x = .53
It's about .53 or about half a year.
2007-05-20 03:50:23 · answer #5 · answered by Crazy J 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
7 months i think
2007-05-20 03:42:53 · answer #6 · answered by Simon 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋