2007-05-19 16:06:48 · 8 answers · asked by beachflower.2010 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
is/of = %
let's use powers of 10, it's easier
1million = 10^6
1 billion = 10^9
therefore, is/of = 10^6/10^9 = 1/10^3 = 1/1000 = .001 = 0.1% (that's 1/10th of a percent)
2007-05-19 16:10:26 · answer #1 · answered by Kathleen K 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Divide the two numbers and multiply by 100 to convert to %.
1,000,000/1,000,000,000*100=.1%
2007-05-19 16:11:33 · answer #2 · answered by Supermatt100 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
When you take out all the common zeros you have:
1/1000=0.001*100=0.1%
2007-05-19 16:10:46 · answer #3 · answered by Cool Nerd At Your Service 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1%
2007-05-19 16:17:26 · answer #4 · answered by Rikin 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
1,000,000 / 1,000,000,000 = 0.001
You have to multply 0.001 by 100 to get a percent therefore,
0.001 * 100 = 0.1%
Hey guy that said 1%, are you serious?!
2007-05-19 16:48:57 · answer #5 · answered by Illya Lapko 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1,000,000(1 million) is 0.1% of 1,000,000,000(1 billion) because a million times a thousand is a billion.
2007-05-19 16:10:52 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
1/10 th of a %
2007-05-19 16:10:59 · answer #7 · answered by eggman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
one thousand in case you're in the U. S., a million,000,000 in case you're in the united kingdom. uk & US billions are distinctive. even if in modern times the united kingdom has began adopting the U. S. way of expressing 1000000000 (because it sounds greater suitable on BBC information and is greater sensational)
2016-12-11 14:32:09 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋