There's one thing I don't get. As we all know, the Bible is full of misogyny.
Some people say that the reason for women being discriminated in religion and in today's life is the fact that they were the ones who started the sin so they were basically the origin of the sin. But if God decided to punish women for Eva's actions only after Eva sinned, then why does God (who existed before Eva and Adam even came into the picture) has always been called a He? My point is that the fact that God fulfills the role of a male entity (even if He only does it with His name) goes to show that this discrimination against women has always existed and has no reason. If God would have given equal rights to both sexes and would have been truly fair as the Bible says, then He wouldn't have been called a He, He would have been a combination of both sexes. The appellative leaves a lot of room for interpretation.
2007-05-19
13:56:53
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4 answers
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asked by
Cheshire Riddle
6
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy
Now if this gender title would have been applied to God only AFTER Eva had sinned, I would have understood it, but this gender title has ALWAYS been applied to God so that tells me the discrimination against women in the Bible has always existed. And from this point of view, I see no reason for it. If it would have happened after Eva's sin, there would have been a reason, but there are no reasons. And if there are no reasons, then God isn't fair.
2007-05-19
13:57:04 ·
update #1