If a married couple-and only one has worked and paid in to Soc Security-when both reach retirement age- the previous person who was employed gets soc.Sec. and the spouse who has Never worked gets half (or somewhere near) of his or her's benefit--can anyone explain this?? Even while both are alive??
2007-05-19 02:46:04 · 4 answers · asked by Mikierz 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Because Social Security is there to buy votes. All entitlement programs are.
2007-05-19 03:08:08 · answer #1 · answered by Pooky Bear the Sensitive 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This is the benefit of marriage.
When a couple are married in the United States they become a union of one.
What is good for one is good for the other also.
.
2007-05-19 09:51:39 · answer #2 · answered by Brotherhood 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
So why do you have a problem with it when there is more abuse like immigrant who never paid a dime receives it, lazy people who stay home and have illegitimate babies gets medicare, drunks and drug addict gets SSD. etc.
2007-05-19 10:05:16 · answer #3 · answered by bbj1776 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
that law must have been passed when it was more common for wives to stay home.
2007-05-19 09:49:29 · answer #4 · answered by njyogibear 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋