1/0=infinity
therefore 1=infinityx0
therfore 1=0 (0xanything is 0)
where is this wrong?
2007-05-19 01:18:36 · 14 answers · asked by littlewatercaye 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
one divided by zero is undefined.
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2007-05-19 01:30:07 · answer #1 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, you make a good point, and I actually considered the idea that 0/0 could equal anything, too. Most of the time, you won't just be given x=0/0, solve for x; you'll usually only encounter 0/0 if you're considering a function of a variable with a fraction in it, like f(x) = (5x-5)/(x^2-1). If we were to say x=1, then f(x)=0/0. Now, 0/0 still has no meaning, and that would literally just be a hole in the graph. You can, however, use calculus to find what is called the limit as x goes to 1. This is the point that the graph is approaching when it gets close to 1. You will probablly learn about this in higher mathematics.
2016-05-17 09:09:56 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Remember that at 'step two' what you are ACTUALLY doing (in Maths) is multiplying BOTH sides by zero (in order to get the zero on the infinity side of the equation) -- you are NOT simply moving the zero to the other side!
Hence the real step looks like this:
1/0 = infinity
therfore
1/0 x 0 = infinity x 0
therefore
0=0
Your simplification of this step led to the error.
2007-05-19 01:23:11 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Technically, dividing by zero results in an undefined number. Multiplying an undefined number by 0 still results in an undefined number. An undefined number cannot be compared to any other number (like 1).
2007-05-19 01:29:30 · answer #4 · answered by klynnr_1981 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/0=0
Actually you can't divide by zero.
2007-05-19 01:28:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wait, I have a question for you, does 'anything' includes infinity? since it is infinite it should always go beyond what is asked. 0 multiplied by any number is 0 but since it is infinite, it should go beyond 0 and end up, let us say, approximately 1. Like the rule in irrational numbers right? That's my opinion. Infinity is sure troublesome!
2007-05-19 01:28:25 · answer #6 · answered by Phoebe 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm sorry LMAO at katehughes2706-
"1 divided by 0 is 1
That's where you're wrong. "- above- she had to be joking.
IF you are taking the limit of 1/0 then it will reach infinity.-from that your entire reasoning is invalid.
2007-05-19 01:26:28 · answer #7 · answered by decoyname4t 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Where is it wrong? If a number divided by 0 is infinite it doesn't mean that number is equal to infinity. There is no mathematical principle that states that nor one that could make you think that.
(plus all numbers divided by 0 equal infinity!)
2007-05-19 01:21:30 · answer #8 · answered by h4ckjack 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Aside from the problem of dividing by zero, the "= infinity" part is also misworded.
2007-05-19 03:24:06 · answer #9 · answered by Mark 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 divided by 0 is not defined..and merely by shifting ur denominator 'visually' to the other side is misleading.
2007-05-19 03:15:44 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 cannot replace 0 and vice versa. you have put Ur feet in wrong shoe.
2007-05-19 01:23:02 · answer #11 · answered by Triumph 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋