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It seems like it would, but they are always in the same sentence.

2007-05-17 18:42:14 · 9 answers · asked by 69chevycamaro 5 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

I was thinking about it, and I just put them in the same sentence. lol

2007-05-17 19:02:42 · update #1

9 answers

no. in this case, "nor" is a conjunction. its use is to act as the connector between two words. and it can be used positively--eg, neither Bob nor Bill got punished. or neither Bob nor Bill was involved in the accident.

and yes, they Always go hand-in-hand in a sentence. same with either-or. got it? :D

2007-05-17 19:30:35 · answer #1 · answered by wat_more_can_i_say? 6 · 0 0

It's only wrong in formal standard English. for informal English, continue to use them. Formal English chooses the view that the second negative negates the first. It's a valid view but not the only one. Some informal English dialects choose the view that the second negative strengths, enhances, or specifies the negative. Many foreign languages also take this view (and even allow triple negatives). I am capable of proper English, but often indulge in informal English, including double negatives.

2016-05-22 03:01:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The "Double negative" that is considered to be poor English refers to two negatives

(a) in the same phrase or clause AND
(b) used to express ONE negative forcefully

Thus: "I don't need nothing" is emphatic for "I don't need anything"


But, there is nothing at all wrong with the following:

(a) using negatives in two separate clauses of phrases. That is what you are really doing with "neither" and "nor".

"Neither Bill nor I can be there" is fine

This is clearer if you simply rephrase it. It means exactly the same as

"Bill cannot be there AND I cannot be there.

As you can see from the conjunction ("and") it amounts to two separate negatives.


(b) using two negatives attached to the same word or idea to make a POSITIVE statement, often in a more forceful way, or to suggest that, though you might EXPECT the negative, that's not actually the case

Example - "not" + a negative prefix ("un-/in-" etc) - :"His visit was not unexpected" (which may suggest "that's EXACTLY what I expected")

You might find these explanations of the double negative helpful:
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/double+negative
http://encarta.msn.com/dictionary_1861689313/double_negative.html

2007-05-18 18:21:23 · answer #3 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 0 0

Well spotted Megan T!
Think of it like this:
Neither Jack nor (or) Jane is happy.
Nor in this context is not really a negative. It is only convention that insists nor be used with neither, rather than or, which is what it actually means.

2007-05-17 18:53:13 · answer #4 · answered by Bethany 7 · 0 0

In a sentence we use "either" and "or" and for negative ones "neither " and "nor" That's how the English language is, my friend. For example, neither Sam nor Robin knew where she had gone.

2007-05-17 18:50:41 · answer #5 · answered by young_friend 5 · 0 1

No, because they need not refer to the same thing, or if they do, it is to exclude the same item.

Neither of the friends walked quickly, nor did the sight of the bullies inspire them to do so.

2007-05-17 19:00:18 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

English has a lot of stupid conventions and this is one of those. Nor is not meant to negate what Neither says but on the contrary it is used to complement it. Neither you nor I can change this language conventions!

2007-05-17 23:20:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anil Hanagud 2 · 0 1

'Nor' in itself is not meant to negate. It simply refers to the alternative in the negative. Whilst 'or' is the positive alternative, 'nor' is the negative. So where you would use 'or' with 'either', you can in fact only use 'nor' with 'neither'.

2007-05-17 19:00:01 · answer #8 · answered by Samaita 2 · 0 0

no it would not.

2007-05-17 19:11:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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