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16 answers

No.You still might be charged for breaking laws that existed at the time of the infraction,unless the repeal of the law states that immunity is given retroactively.
But the reverse IS true.
If a law goes into affect on ,let's say January 2nd,then you can't be charged for having violated it on January 1! Your action wasn't illegal that day.Atleast that's the way it works here in the good ol' U.S. of A.!

2007-05-17 13:39:49 · answer #1 · answered by Danny 5 · 0 0

you are liable for breaking that certain law what i mean is that as punishment say 5 smack in the butt then you get 5 belting in the butt even if the law punishment was changed and approved to hanging tomorrow.
As the guy said there are no retroactive in some laws especially if its not for the betterment of the people. The only thing I read once was when a senator says that the income tax deductions passed and approved say January is effective on April (income tax filing) of the same year. Retro active applies when for the good of the people.

2007-05-17 20:52:23 · answer #2 · answered by Erase Program Read Only Memory 5 · 0 0

Yes you would still have broken the law but only for that day. If they didn't do anything about it when it was a law (they didn't find out or because they knew they were changing it) you would not have broken it. I hope that helps. It probably won't SORRY!

2007-05-17 20:36:45 · answer #3 · answered by ♥bubblygirl♥ 1 · 0 0

It would probably mean you have broken the law in the past. But if you did whatever it is you did to break the law before.. now, it wouldn't be breaking the law. It would still count from previously though.

2007-05-17 20:40:38 · answer #4 · answered by Lemonada 3 · 1 1

Nope - you broke the law yesterday, and unless the law is changed to include yesterday, you're still on the hook for yesterday's law.

2007-05-17 21:00:21 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

no, you broke the laws today, when the laws were still in place. so you definitely went against the law.

2007-05-17 20:34:34 · answer #6 · answered by peaches 2 · 0 0

no. determining whether a law has been broken is based upon what the law was at the time the alleged violation was committed.

2007-05-17 20:35:10 · answer #7 · answered by Jane D 4 · 0 0

An ex post facto law (after the fact) in prohibited by th U.S. Constitution.

2007-05-17 20:34:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Nope.

If you commit a crime when it's still a crime, then you are still accountable for your actions, regardless of if the law was changed the next day.

2007-05-17 20:34:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

nope. many laws are not retro-active.

2007-05-17 20:32:59 · answer #10 · answered by arus.geo 7 · 0 0

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