2007-05-17 12:05:08 · 4 answers · asked by jermaine d 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Eh? These things are not equal. Heck, just ignoring the middle term, you're asking for proof that tan x = cot x. Obviously they're not, except in the special case where sin x = cos x.
Anyway, the way I tackle problems like this is by first putting everything in terms of sine and cosine:
tan = sin/cos
cot = cos/sin
sec = 1/cos
so cot / sec^2 = (cos/sin) / (1/cos^2) = (cos/sin)*(cos^2) = cos^3*sin
Obviously, this does not equal tan or cot.
2007-05-17 12:14:18 · answer #1 · answered by Bramblyspam 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your equation when expanded reveals its untruth:
[tan(pi/4) = 1] = {[cot(pi/4)] = 1}/{[sec(pi/4)]² = 2} = [cot(pi/4) = 1].
2007-05-17 19:17:21 · answer #2 · answered by Mark 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You've got something wrong, because they are not equal so you can't prove that they are.
2007-05-17 19:11:17 · answer #3 · answered by Math Nerd 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Check your equation. Something is dreadfully wrong!!
2007-05-17 19:10:33 · answer #4 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋