Please explain how you arrive the answer. Thanks.
2007-05-17 05:20:11 · 4 answers · asked by buoisang 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
P(red,red) = 15/100 • 14/99 = 7/330
Prob is favorable/possible, so on 1st draw, 15 red / 100 possible. On 2nd draw (assuming we got a red 1st time), 14 red / 99 possible.
2007-05-17 05:27:21 · answer #1 · answered by Philo 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Heu look you must know first whether the balls were replaced or not
If they were replaced,so we have 15 red then the probability of the first ball picked toi be red is 15/100 ,and the second is also 15/100 so one red ball and one red ball which means:
15/100 times 15/100 =9/400
If they were not replaced:
The probability of the first ball is 15/100 and the second is 14/99 (the first ball is already out so we disregard it
probability becomes 15/100 times 14/99 =7/330
hope u get it!!
2007-05-17 05:29:02 · answer #2 · answered by nour_blue4ever 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i'm going to anticipate that the ball bumped off first isn't replaced in the previous the 2d selection is made. the respond is: 4/40 5. eliminating the pink ball first, then the yellow. probability for the pink: 4/10 = 2/5 probability for the yellow: 2/9 probability for the pink-yellow pair: (2/5)(2/9) = 4/40 5 eliminating the yellow ball first, then the pink. probability for the yellow: 2/10 = a million/5 probability for the pink: 4/9 probability for the pink-yellow pair: (a million/5)(4/9) = 4/40 5 Now i'm going to anticipate that the ball chosen first is replaced in the previous the 2d selection is made. the respond is: 2/25. (4/10)(2/10) = 8/one hundred = 2/25.
2016-12-11 12:10:00 · answer #3 · answered by louthan 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2.2121% 15 / 100 = 15% 14 / 99 = 14.1414% 15% X 14.1414% = 2.2121%
2007-05-17 05:31:11 · answer #4 · answered by dec 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋