I beleive if you have been found not guilty in criminal court you should not be allowed to sue in a civil court. If they want to sue you in civil court they should sue you there first, them a criminal case should be tried no matter what the outcome of the civil case. Anyone agree? I'm sure plenty disagree.
2007-05-16 06:30:11 · 5 answers · asked by ChaliQ 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The burden of proof is less in the civil court go there first. Since the burden of proof is higher in the criminal case if tried there first & found not guilty by 12 people then you shouldn't be a sore loser & try to sue now, you should have sued before when you had a better chance. This seems to me to be a do over not fair to the man found innocent.
2007-05-16 07:05:11 · update #1
What you people don't seem to grasp is that this man has been declared innocent by 12 unamious people. He is a free man. If he is innocent then you shouldn't ne allowed to retry him in a different court where there are easier ways to convict him. He has been declared NOT GUILTY & any retrial should be considered double jeopardy civil court or not. If you wanted him in civil court they should have gone there first.
2007-05-17 04:12:22 · update #2
I don't agree. The rules of evidence are different. Generally it's harder to submit evidence in criminal court and this is mean to protect us from an overzealous government.
But civil court is only meant to protect us from ourselves.
2007-05-16 06:38:04 · answer #1 · answered by vbrink 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Another OJ supporter.
The standard of proof in civil court is lower than the standard of proof in criminal court, so "yes" you should be allowed to sue in civil court. If the standards of proof were the same, then "no", because what would be the point?
2007-05-16 06:39:52 · answer #2 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
In a criminal court, it is the GOVERNMENT going after the defendant. In a civil court, it is a PRIVATE INDIVIDUAL going after the defendant. They are different opponents for the defendant.
2007-05-16 13:18:46 · answer #3 · answered by chris 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
completedly disagree. not only is the burden of proof and legal standards different, the penalties are different as well.
2007-05-16 06:50:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
You should study the constitution a little more.
2007-05-16 06:39:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋