2007-05-15 20:58:31 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
4
2007-05-15 21:01:42 · answer #1 · answered by ignoramus 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm gonna retype your question....to what i think its saying
the mean of 42 numbers is 16. If each number (of those 42) are divided by 4, what is the new mean?
It'd be 4.
We'll do 4 numbers
2, 4, 6, 8
2+4+6+8 = 20
20/4 = 5
lets divide each of those numbers by 2
1, 2, 3, 4
1+2+3+4 = 10
10/4 = 5/2
well our old mean 5 divided by 2 = 5/2
2007-05-15 21:03:14 · answer #2 · answered by My name is not bruce 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Let me caution you. You are going to get a lot of answers that describe an average instead of a mean. By luck The answer of 4 is still right.
I hope you will not only understand the difference in meaning, but the implications. What does it mean if the mean is higher or lower than the average? You can make a lot more intelligent decisions in life if you understand this.
2007-05-15 21:27:41 · answer #3 · answered by Richard F 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mean = 16 = sum/42
sum = 42*16 = 672
new mean = (sum/4) / 42
new mean = 672 / (42 * 4) = 4
2007-05-15 21:02:40 · answer #4 · answered by michael_scoffield 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mean = sum of no.s/no. of nos
is each no is divided by 4, then take 1.4 out sommon from the sum. u can see that it becomes original mean times 1/4
hence, new mean = 16/4 = 4
2007-05-15 21:07:28 · answer #5 · answered by sushobhan 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what on earth are you talking about?
should you be looking at the number 32 and not 42?
2007-05-15 21:10:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's 16/4 = 4
Say you have a1, a2, a3, a4, ..., a41, a42.
The mean is (a1+a2+a3+...+a41+a42)/42
If you divide each number by 4 you have:
((a1+a2+a3+...+a41+a42) / 4) /42
=(a1+a2+a3+...+a41+a42)/(42*4)
Which is a quarter of the original mean:
(a1+a2+a3+...+a41+a42)/42
Thus as the original mean is 16, the new mean is 4.
2007-05-15 21:05:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋