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What does the below statement means? I am so confused.

The market value of bonds = present value of future income to bondholders

Please give me a clear easy explanation as I am new to these terms and I am currently revising for my exams. Thank you!

2007-05-14 22:49:27 · 3 answers · asked by worksopians 1 in Social Science Economics

3 answers

A $100 dollars today is worth more than $100 10 years from now, both because there will be inflation and because you could invest the $100 and increase its value over the next 10 years. The interest paid by the bond compensates you for the difference. If you get an interest rate r on a bond payable in 10 years then the your future payment on a $100 will be
$100(1+r)^10=payoff
If instead the payoff in 10 years will be $100 then the present value of the bond is given by
PV=$100/(1+r)^10
which is the amount you would be willing to pay for such a bond today, that is its market value.
For Example with regular payouts see
http://academic.uofs.edu/faculty/gramborw/tubonds.html

2007-05-14 23:21:43 · answer #1 · answered by meg 7 · 0 0

The future income to the bondholders are all of the payments left on the bond.

For example, if it is a $1000, 10% bond for 20 years, the bondholder will receive a $100 payment for 19 years, and $1100 payment in year 20 (the 20th payment + repayment of the bond).

You have to discount all of these payments and sum.

Hopefully you are not entirely new to these terms if you have it on an exam soon.

2007-05-15 02:25:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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2016-11-23 13:44:25 · answer #3 · answered by maritza 4 · 0 0

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