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2 answers

p-1>=1 so p>=2
Even at p=2
(x-1)/ lnx at x = 0 and x=1 has limit 0 so you ncan make it continuos at those points.
The integral exists and can be be proven to be =ln2

2007-05-15 02:37:44 · answer #1 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0 0

i see that x has to be positive cuz of the denominator

and for wen x is positive, p can be anything

so the range for p is all reals

2007-05-14 21:22:38 · answer #2 · answered by Nano 3 · 0 0

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