For example, is line M parallel to line M(the same line). Because they do have the same slope, but their the same line.
2007-05-14 19:36:51 · 6 answers · asked by John 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Depends how you define parallelism. In formal plane geometry (using Hilbert's axioms), if I recall correctly two lines are parallel if they have no point in common. By this definition, a line obviously cannot be parallel to itself because it has points in common with itself. This definition doesn't work in 3-D, by the way.
If you define "parallel" to mean "having the same slope", then yes, a line is parallel to itself.
2007-05-15 02:25:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the definition.
some call parallel lines which have no point or infinite points in common.
By this definition a line is parallel to itself
2007-05-15 09:41:02 · answer #2 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there were two lines with the exact same equations, they would be parallel to each other. If it's just one line, it couldn't be parallel to anything simply because there is nothing to compare it to. It's like saying "Am I parallel to myself because I'm sitting where I am right now?" It just doesn't make much sense.
2007-05-15 02:42:28 · answer #3 · answered by Supermatt100 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes, a line segment of the same line is identical to itself. One of the features that they share is the parallelism.
2007-05-15 02:43:28 · answer #4 · answered by (+_+) B 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes it is.but when the question is that find the paralells of a line you can't say itself
but if the question is that is this line parallel to itself the answer is YES IT IS.
2007-05-15 05:00:14 · answer #5 · answered by shiva 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes da...u r absolutely right
2007-05-15 02:42:35 · answer #6 · answered by mr crazy 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋