2007-05-14 16:48:06 · 13 answers · asked by Me. 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
You can compute this by multiplying 1 million by 100:
$1,000,000 * 100 = 100,000,000 pennies (100 million pennies).
If you're not seeing why, think about how many penies are in, say, 5 dollars. It's clearly 500, right? How'd you get that? You just had to multiply 5 by 100, the number of pennies per dollar.
2007-05-14 16:52:20 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
100 million pennies (1 million*100)
2007-05-14 19:06:44 · answer #2 · answered by Dr. Eddie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
100 million pennies. Problem: 100 times 1,000,000 which equals 100,000,000 pennies
2007-05-14 18:12:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Let's see:
$1 million in pennies weighs 250,000,000 grams
while 1 penny weighs 2.5 grams
So 250,000,000 divided by 2.5 is 100,000,000
Therefore there must be 100,000,000 pennies in $1 million
2007-05-14 17:02:36 · answer #4 · answered by Poetland 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
100 million
2007-05-14 16:50:59 · answer #5 · answered by Demiurge42 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
100 million pennies. That if i had i be sooo rich
2007-05-14 17:21:15 · answer #6 · answered by dust 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
100 x 1 million = 100,000,000 (100 million)
2007-05-14 16:51:19 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
$1,000,000 x [100 pennies / $1] = 100,000,000 pennies
2007-05-14 16:51:49 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
100x1million
or 1,000,000 [1million] add 2 0's [representing multiplying by 100]
1,000,000,00=100,000,000
or ONE million x ONE HUNDRED
1x100=100+the million part
100million
2007-05-14 16:53:29 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
a hundred million pennies.
2007-05-14 16:51:27 · answer #10 · answered by Joni DaNerd 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋