If f(x)=g(x) is an identity with domain of validity D, which of the following must be true?
I. For any x in D, f(x) is defined.
II. For any x in D, g(x) is defined.
III. for any x in D, f(x) = g(x).
A. none
B. I and II only
C. l and lll only
D. lll only
E. l, ll, and lll
2007-05-14 13:40:55 · 5 answers · asked by Anish R. 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
by reasoning it shoudl be e.
to try and do these questions on your own. try to draw different graphs and see if you can make and statements invalid.
2007-05-14 13:46:58 · answer #1 · answered by gonavy271 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the funcations are equal to one another then if either function is defined, it defines the other as well by equation.
E.
2007-05-14 13:46:23 · answer #2 · answered by Cool Nerd At Your Service 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
they are the comparable. once you element x^2-a million you get (x+a million) and (x-a million) so g(x) can be rewritten as (x+a million)*(x-a million)/(x+a million). The (x+a million) can cancel out the single on the backside. So the g(x)= x-a million it truly is comparable to f(x).
2016-12-17 12:45:02 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Cheater. And that problem is easy.
2007-05-14 13:44:03 · answer #4 · answered by courtney t 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
E, all three.
2007-05-14 13:45:44 · answer #5 · answered by TychaBrahe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋