Since the people of England were taxed by the Stamp Act of 1765 on the same basis as the American colonists, why did the colonists object so strongly to the law? Were they justified in their objections?
I cant get an answer out of this i dont know i tried researching.
Can you lead me in the right way thanks in advance
2007-05-14 09:07:07 · 2 answers · asked by victor h 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
The colonists were upset by any tax on anything in the States because they didn't have representatives in the Court. (You've heard of that,haven't you?) The English had the King's ear. Plus at times, like tea and stamps and sugar, it was a hardship for people to pay each time the British raised the rate. They were exporting things to England that the people there didn't pay tax on, but importing highly taxed things. How fair was that?
Even though I am the descendent of a Tory, I think the people were justified in refusing to pay.
2007-05-14 09:24:25 · answer #1 · answered by Jess 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was a matter of perspective; the English felt that the colonists should help "shoulder the burdens" of the Empire, since they were part of the Empire. The English had been paying a Stamp Act for years. The inherent problem, as far as the COLONISTS were concerned was that they had no representation in parliament. Had they had representation, I do not believe this would've been as large an issue. However, as Ben Franklin was attributed to saying (and Im paraphrasing here): Calling a colonist an Enlishman is like calling an ox a bull; he's thankful for the honor but would much rather have restored what was rightfully his.
2007-05-14 22:21:59 · answer #2 · answered by TEACHING GODDESS 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋