English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

9 answers

Yes, he does. It's covered under 6.01 B, which states that, "The first batter in each inning after the first inning shall be the player whose name follows that of the last player who legally completed his time at bat in the preceding inning."

Since the batter did not complete his at-bat the previous inning, he will lead off the next inning.

2007-05-14 06:41:54 · answer #1 · answered by Craig S 7 · 1 0

D) Hitting a guy always runs the risk of getting taken out of the game. Hey, I was okay when the Jays batters got hit like 3+ times against the Yankees, of course Halladay retaliated, by 1 hitting them though.

2016-04-01 00:49:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yup, it happens all the time -- if a team's lead-off man comes up with 2 outs and a man at first, they almost seem to want the base runner to get out stealing so that their lead-off man can come up along with the rest of the top of the order with no outs next inning

2007-05-14 07:23:11 · answer #3 · answered by Zee 6 · 0 0

Yes

2007-05-14 06:35:30 · answer #4 · answered by Casey 2 · 0 0

Yes.

2007-05-14 06:39:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yep

2007-05-14 06:59:14 · answer #6 · answered by Martino78 3 · 0 0

Si senor

2007-05-14 08:34:57 · answer #7 · answered by MAtt 3 · 0 0

ya, in Baseball

2007-05-14 07:28:45 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes....................with a fresh count.,...

2007-05-15 18:23:03 · answer #9 · answered by Lefty 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers