2007-05-11 08:48:39 · 13 answers · asked by QliffS 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
1 + 1 = 3, for sufficiently large values of 1.
2007-05-11 09:07:17 · answer #1 · answered by McFate 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Short answer: 2.
Long answer (though much shorter than the really long answer): It depends on your number system. If you just consider a number system with two different numbers, zero and one, which can be added together, but still come up with a number within the set, then the answer is zero. You'd have: 0+0=0, 0+1=1, 1+0=1, 1+1=0. Try other possible totals within that set, and you'll find that they aren't self-consistent. These two numbers, 0 and 1, with this addition, form the cyclical group Z mod 2 (which treats all integers as being equivalent to their remainder when divided by 2, so evens are all 0 and odds are all 1). There are many more number systems that one can come up with, but this just shows you that your question is not as simple as it seems and that people shouldn't have just ignored it. If you're actually interested, get yourself a basic undergraduate level algebra textbook, for example the one by Rudin (I forget his first name). Even if you don't/didn't like math in high school, you shouldn't have trouble with this if you can do arithmetic, as it's totally different and very intuitive.
2007-05-11 08:58:46 · answer #2 · answered by DryApartmentNoSunshine 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In binary
1 + 1 = 10
.
2007-05-11 08:52:47 · answer #3 · answered by Robert L 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1+1=2 Problem solved.
2007-05-11 08:52:48 · answer #4 · answered by pooterilgatto 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1+1= 2 this is in base ten,eight and sonon down to three.
1+1 = 10 this is in base 2
1+1=11 if you are joking
this is the only thing i can think off now
2007-05-11 10:41:49 · answer #5 · answered by jay gal 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
11
2007-05-11 08:52:09 · answer #6 · answered by lmao 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Given a = b ≠ 0
a² = ab (multiplying both sides by a)
a² - b² =ab – b² (adding –b² to both sides)
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b) (distributive, associative and commutative properties)
a+b=b (multiplying both sides by the multiplicative inverse of a-b)
2b=b (a=b)
2=1 (multiplying both sides by the multiplicative inverse of b)
1=0 (adding -1 to both sides)
So 1+1 = 0
Ain't math a blast? Think we might be put away for doing this?
;-)
2007-05-11 09:06:23 · answer #7 · answered by gugliamo00 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
2 i better have a talk with your teacher
2007-05-11 08:52:48 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
In what base?
2007-05-11 08:52:28 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Can i get back to you. I need to take a pain killer. It really hurts when i think.
2007-05-11 09:04:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋