2007-05-09 10:55:06 · 10 answers · asked by Holistic Mystic 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
Apparently there was something in her coronation speech that implied the divine right of kings or something existed.
2007-05-09 12:29:19 · update #1
The concept of the 'Divine right of kings' dates back way before James I, Jenni. In the old days they used to say that the monarchy was appointed by God and no person could challenge that, but it's all a bit dodgy since people have been usurping the monarchs for hundreds of years. Look at some of the arguments surrounding the War of the Roses and the execution of Charles I (James I's son) and you'll see plenty of stuff about the divine right of kings.
2007-05-09 11:11:44 · answer #1 · answered by Princess Paradox 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Not since the Stuarts. James I was the last monarch to use his divine powers to cure scrofula(!).
Charles I his son was very much the anointed king, chosen by God. The commonwealth under Cromwell stopped all that (they chopped his head off so divinity didn't do him much good).
Further settlements 1660, 1688, 1714 and so on made it plain that Parliament was the true source of power and the position of monarch became increasingly constitutional.
The current monarch Elizabeth II is still the head of the Church of England.
2007-05-09 11:11:13 · answer #2 · answered by shell 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No the Queen is styled "By the Grace of God, Queen of....." but she is always referred to as God's servant and never as divine. The Coronation Ceremony is a Religious Service and follows a set procedure. You can see the 'running order' of the Coronation Service here. http://www.oremus.org/liturgy/coronation/cor1953b.html
2007-05-09 20:17:34 · answer #3 · answered by KB 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This goes back to James I of England (James I of Engalnd was the son of and successor of Mary Queen of Scots to the Scottish Throne and selected by his cousin Elizabeth I of England as the successor to the throne of England following her death. James ruled Scotland from the time of his mothers execution in 1587 until 1603 when he became the King of England. He ruled England from 1603 until the time of his death in 1625 when his son Charles I became the new King of England).
He brought about the concept of "The Divine rule of Kings" , meaning that the King was next to god, in the grand scheme of things, and therefore should be worshipped as such.(England's puritan movement, the protestant reformation and Oliver Cromwell effectively removed the concept of "The Divine Right of Kings" by putting Charles I (James I son) on trial for high treason against his own countrymen.)
So really it is just something that happened over history and doesn't really get used any more.
Hope this helped.
2007-05-09 11:05:32 · answer #4 · answered by Jenni 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, this is not prewar Japan. Her full style states 'by the Grace of God, Queen' but there has never been any suggestion that the monarch is divine, only that their authority comes from God.
2007-05-09 11:08:11 · answer #5 · answered by Dunrobin 6 · 4⤊ 1⤋
NO!! She is the head of the Church of England. Not divine.
2007-05-09 14:42:33 · answer #6 · answered by .. .this can't be good 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Not Divinity but that their right to rule comes from God that they are the lords anointed.
2007-05-09 11:12:14 · answer #7 · answered by mixturenumber1 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Divinity is the wrong word, even though some expressions of loyalty are designed to sound like religeous worship.
In fact, the admiration heeped upon the British royal family is best described as sychophantic toadying.
It is nothing more than the slippery associating with the viscous in order to ease the penetration into the intimate circles of the rich.
In any case...they're German.
2007-05-09 11:03:10 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 6⤋
That sort of thing stopped when King Charles I was executed.
2007-05-09 18:14:43 · answer #9 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hope not..i certainly dont believe the queen is any closer to God than me.
2007-05-11 05:31:16 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋