2007-05-08 17:51:41 · 8 answers · asked by anonymus 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
4?
2007-05-08 17:55:34 · answer #1 · answered by Alice K 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is 5 cups. There are 2 cups in one pint. So one pint would be 2 cups + the 3 cups would make 5 cups or 2 1/2 pints
2007-05-09 00:57:14 · answer #2 · answered by Meg 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 cup = 8oz
1 pint = 16oz
therefore:
1 pint = 2 cups
3 cups + 1 pint = 5 cups
2007-05-09 01:04:57 · answer #3 · answered by bigdee_x 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2 cups in a pint, so 3+2=5 cups
2007-05-09 00:59:07 · answer #4 · answered by ♥me, myself and i♥ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A pint is 2 cups so you have 5 cups or 2 pints and 1 cup.
2007-05-09 00:57:12 · answer #5 · answered by pjallittle 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since you didn't stipulate U.S. or U.K. cups and pints, and this is an international forum I won't give a quantitative answer to your question.
However I will say in my experience; 3 cups of coffee followed by a pint of Lager = a trip to the loo in short order. They don't seem to mix well for internal storage.
http://www.onlineconversion.com/volume.htm
2007-05-09 01:26:32 · answer #6 · answered by Caretaker 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
5 cups or 40 ounces
2007-05-09 01:28:31 · answer #7 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5 cups.
2007-05-09 00:55:46 · answer #8 · answered by Lawrence T 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋