I understand that all manmade materials would completely decompose or wear to dust within 40,000 years. How do we know there wasn't a civilization before ours that was up to our level of technology and then destroyed itself?
2007-05-08 16:37:10 · 4 answers · asked by Wait a Minute 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Its possible but there's no records of any kind for it. Its also possible that there were "alien" civilizations here then, but again no records available. If there was/is any records of such/either they've been hidden &/or destroyed.
2007-05-08 17:36:02 · answer #1 · answered by Izen G 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
judging the vastness of the universe,
i should safely say that it's very much possible..
but not here on Earth, somewhere out there in deep space.
we wouldnt know it now, but maybe 50,000 years from now
when all the knowledge we wish to acquire is actually achieved. scientifically, we have more theories than scientific Laws... that speaks much of the things unknown compared to the known ones. In the future, i hope these get to be answered & by that time religion & science would have it's truce.
for now, let's just romanticize looking at the heavens...
but always keep our feet planted on the ground.
:-)
2007-05-08 16:46:46 · answer #2 · answered by enki 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. There are certain rules on becoming a civilization. For instance there has to be laws/a justice system and they have to stay in one place.
2007-05-08 16:49:24 · answer #3 · answered by gregory_dittman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there is, it would have been man-kind our forefathers but they have came from another planet to this one to start a new colony because their old one became inhabitable; or they never found a way back from an experimental trip.
Very likely!
2007-05-08 17:26:45 · answer #4 · answered by lolitakali 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋