Ok...I’m debunking a proposal, the proposal is giving the land mass to relation to the people in California...I basically need to find out all of the land masses from uninhabited areas in California then subtract that from habited areas of California. Then show the percentage difference…if you have any questions...please let me know. You will be a great help!
SAM
2007-05-07 17:02:21 · 3 answers · asked by random 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Geography
uninhabited (not having inhabitants; not lived in) basically areas that people dont live in..
2007-05-07 17:22:59 · update #1
The easiest way to figure this out would be to set a minimum number of people/square mile (say 20 or 100 per). Punch the data into the computer and then look at the results. You do not need a spectrum to show population density, only black and white areas
2007-05-07 19:52:01 · answer #1 · answered by Kevin k 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How do you define inhabited and uninhabited? I may own a a 6000 ft^2 lot. But do I inhabit the lot, my block, the woods nearby? Or do I only inhabit the 2 ft^2 chair that I am sitting on? You might have a chance if you can phrase your question as incorporated areas (ie cities) and unicorporated areas?
2007-05-08 00:11:18 · answer #2 · answered by rscanner 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, all I know is that the vast majority of the land that is uninhabited in California is either set aside for National and State Parks or is just too barren or hot to live in.
2007-05-08 00:07:36 · answer #3 · answered by Adel 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋