English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Has it changed from meaning before the fall of the Roman empire? Is it 1000 years back from any present time? Other?

2007-05-07 14:41:05 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

Usually from the fall of the Roman Empire back in history. For example, King Arthur, who may have lived in the 5th or 6th century is not considered "ancient", neither are the ring forts or hills forts of England. The Byzantine Empire, from 315 - 1451 is not considered ancient, but there are references to "ancient Rome".

So, depending on where one is talking about (remember, in history time and place are everything) one might suggested that from the Battle of the Milvian Bridge, perhaps, in 312 and earlier might be considered "ancient" although there is probably no general agreement on this.

2007-05-07 14:49:39 · answer #1 · answered by John B 7 · 1 0

The fall of the Roman Empire in the West in 476 is generally considered to be the marking point before the Dark Ages began,

2007-05-14 12:21:29 · answer #2 · answered by jefx1965 3 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers