Alright, I was watching "The Tudors" yesterday - I know, not the best place to learn about history... - and, when trying to convince Wallsley to take him getting a divorce seriously, King Henry VIII says that "it" - kings having a divorce - has happened before?
I thought that it hadn't and that the only reason he set up the Church of England was so he could get a divorce - because the Catholic Church would NEVER allow a king to get a divorce/annullment - especially after having kids???
So, am I reading too much into it and the line was just "artistic licence", or had kings gotten divorces before??
2007-05-07 12:24:41 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
It is not a sin to get a divorce- so it is likely a king had been divorced.
The sin is in remarrying without an annullment.
2007-05-08 09:17:03 · answer #1 · answered by Mommy_to_seven 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You are correct about Henry VIII. The Pope would not give him a divorce from Katherine of Aragon. Then Henry claimed he married his brother's widow which was not recognized and forbidden by the church. Therefore, he claimed the marriage was null and void. After numerous attempts to get his way with the Pope, Henry finally gave up and set himself up as head of the church in England called the Anglican church. He had many clergy put to death for not swearing allegiance to him and renouncing the authority of the Pope. Nice guy, Henry VIII.
Chow!!
2007-05-07 19:52:16 · answer #2 · answered by No one 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't about divorces, but I think we can safely assume that a good many queens were victims of unfortunate accidents.
I have not watched the Tudors, but from I have heard, it's pretty closely follows true to the facts. At one point in time the popes were allowed to marry and have children. Also even if they could not marry they had mistress and children on the side.
2007-05-07 19:36:08 · answer #3 · answered by saywhat 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋