I have a play that i would like your input on. There is one out with runners on second and third , a fly ball is hit by the batter , the runner on third is tagging but the runner on second just started running. The center fielder catches the ball ...the guy on third tags up and scores. The fielder then throws the ball in and the shortstop steps on second . The umpire calls the catch a out and the appeal at second the third out. The runner clearly scored before second was stepped on. Umpire says run does not score.......was that the right call? This call went our way , but i don't believe it was right. Thank you for your imput.......
2007-05-07 10:04:01 · 10 answers · asked by Kevin H 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
The ump was right, no run because of a force out. Had the runner on second tagged up and was tagged out after the run scored then that's a different story.
2007-05-07 10:11:54 · answer #1 · answered by capo 1 · 2⤊ 3⤋
If the runner from third touched home befrore the appeal was sustained (fielder with ball touching second base) the run counts. This is an appeal play and a time play not a force out. The oonly runner who can be forced at second is a runner from first.
You were benfitted from a sandlot ball mistake by the umpire. and that is with my 30 yrs experience playing and umpiring (not bad for only being 36 yrs old)
2007-05-08 11:18:09 · answer #2 · answered by david w 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes that is the correct ruling. Because the runner on second never went back to tag up, it esentially becomes a force out double play, and no runners can score. The key is that it was a force out. What I don't understand is why an appeal was need or asked for. You said he just started running. An appeal would only be needed to see if he had returned to the bag and then left before the catch was made. The umpire should have ruled the 3rd out once the shortstop touched 2nd base.
2007-05-07 17:24:42 · answer #3 · answered by sdhalcon 2 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Yes the ump is right! It is considered a force play so runner does not score! Like if you have bases loaded with one out and you ground into a NORMAL double play! But if the ball were grounded to the 1st baseman and he touched 1st base 1st then that takes the force off and it becomes a tag situation and the runner on 3rd would score if the guy on the basepath is not tagged out 1st! I need to add one thing noticing that people insist on saying the run should have scored. They are 100% wrong! I have been umping for 15 years and if the runner on second did not tag up and the bag was tagged before he got back then it is a force play! If it wasn't then the runner on second wouldn't be called out by simply touching the bag! I know the rules of the game inside and out and on top of it I have played the sport for 34 years and still do to this day!
2007-05-07 17:14:01 · answer #4 · answered by mrjamfy 4 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Nope, the run defitnly shoulve counted. I don't think many of the other answerers know what they are talking about. If the runner did indeed cross the plate before they tagged second, the run counts.
2007-05-07 17:39:01 · answer #5 · answered by Sixteen and Oh 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That call we incorrect. The 2nd out was the catch, then the run scored and then the 3rd out was at 2nd base. If the runner at 2nd had ran back to the bag then there would not of been a 3rd out therefore it wasnt a forced play.
2007-05-07 17:13:19 · answer #6 · answered by bnelly05 3 · 2⤊ 3⤋
He was out. Because of the mistake by the runner. If a guy goes home with a sac fly, and another runner gets thrown out, he is out. You could look it up in a rulebook. Check google, or yahoo searches.
2007-05-07 17:11:56 · answer #7 · answered by Rocchie 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The umpire was wrong. The out at second was NOT A FORCE PLAY.
2007-05-08 03:51:36 · answer #8 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
the run probably should Have been counted but you would have to see the vplay to know exactly
2007-05-07 17:10:58 · answer #9 · answered by Tyler M 2 · 1⤊ 3⤋
I'm pretty sure he's safe at home.
2007-05-07 17:10:31 · answer #10 · answered by huskeridiot 2 · 1⤊ 4⤋