In certain philosophical texts, it is written that a man who seek more or desire more is really 'Poor' whereas the man who is content with what he got is really "Rich". In the former case, those who desire more are those who are already rich and those who are content is 'just subsisting' category. Do you accept this philosophy?
2007-05-06 03:46:24 · 12 answers · asked by nagarajan s 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Yes, but only on one condition. The man who is truly rich, whether financially wealthy needs something, and I believe there are two things essential. The first is love. When he has found his love, whether a woman, cause or deity, his inner being floods with beauty. Then the second is his tools. He must have the tools available for making all sorts of things and then he can enrich his whole existence by his own inner beauty exuding. Like a man who never wrote a poem and laughed at poetry, he falls in deepest love and then, he writes unbelievably beautiful poems that make people cry and consider their own need for love. A person who hasn't got love, or the ability to express it, will be a very lost, poor person. Of course, the crafts and arts that come from a happy soul then also make that person their living, by making and selling things, trading them...
2007-05-06 04:41:11 · answer #1 · answered by Thx 4 All The Fish 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
perhaps being poor doesn't always mean financially.. For example, I can be the richest woman on earth and yet desire more than what I have. It would make me poor because there is something in the world that i do not have that i still want and feel that I need. Or, on the other hand, I can be poor of something, yet be content with all that I already have. I agree with this statement, however, what really defines a poor or rich man?
2007-05-06 14:22:17 · answer #2 · answered by Angelgirl02 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. I don't. I feel very rich myself because I have a roof over my head. My home is relatively cool in the summer and warm in the winter. I have enough money to buy groceries and pay my bills with a few dollars left over at the end of the month. I tithe my income and give to certain charities each year. By America's standards, I would be in the low-middle class, but I feel very blessed.
2007-05-06 10:59:01 · answer #3 · answered by judyarb1945 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Sathya Saibaba "Mokasha", the Liberation or Salvation mean "Moha Kshaya", the Cessation of Desires. He also gave an Equation
Life + Desire = Man
Life - Desire = God
In this sense even the crave for knowledge or wisdom also, of course indicate poverty. But then to be Rich, perhaps first we have to admit our poverty and then try reducing that poverty.
For this the analogy used is that of a thorn removing another thorn. The thorn of Tamasic Guna, or Tamasic Poverty removed by the thorn of another Thorn of Rajo Guna and then that thorn of Rajas removed by the thorn of Satvic Guna and then wait with Love and Patience, a much richer state for the strike of the Divine Light of complete Moha Kshaya, the Moksha.
2007-05-06 11:27:13 · answer #4 · answered by Indra 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Absolutely not. It implies acquisitiveness has no relation to wisdom. Therefore, if this oversimplistic formula held true, a man poor in wisdom would be the better off than a man rich in wisdom.
2007-05-06 11:41:06 · answer #5 · answered by Baron VonHiggins 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends what is he seeking for. It is good to be poor in desires after you have fulfilled your wishes first. Otherwise you will just trick your mind that you are content and you don't need anything. And it is hard to trick it...
2007-05-06 11:47:43 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes I know someone who has money but wants more his marriage and family suffered while he was seeking more prestige.Yet another friend has a good job but also makes time for family he rarely works overtime and not on weekends.He also attends his kids games ,shows what ever is important to them.Funny thing they are brothers
2007-05-06 11:48:14 · answer #7 · answered by shawns bonnie 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
of course, but here we r talkin abt spiritual richness, not the material one. it is possible 4 a person 2 be rich in both cases if u ask me. its abt internal condition... the 1 who seeks more is simply greedy & the 1 who is happy with what he has n has earned perhaps finds happiness in other things than achievements... u could edit ur ques a bit if u want more concrete answers
2007-05-06 10:58:00 · answer #8 · answered by ♣Queen of clubs 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Absolutely!
But put in a different context, it will have an entirely different meaning.. what about a person who craves more knowledge and someone who is content with stupidity?!
2007-05-06 10:56:11 · answer #9 · answered by x 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Complete desirelessness is, contrarily, the most desirable state.
2007-05-06 10:56:55 · answer #10 · answered by A.V.R. 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋