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Please helpp!!! He lived from 1835 to 1880.
does that mean he goes into the 19th century?

2007-05-05 17:05:30 · 2 answers · asked by CuTiEe hUnNy991 2 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

1835 to 1880 is clearly 19th century. Had he lived a bit longer, he could have been "turn of the century". To be 20th century, he would have had at least one major work written in the 20th century, _after_ 1901. If some of his major works were first _published_ after 1901, a slim case could be made of him being a 20th century composer.

2007-05-05 17:16:31 · answer #1 · answered by Erik Van Thienen 7 · 0 0

How would anything in the 1800s ever be considered 20th century?

2007-05-06 00:13:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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