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No. The scoring opportunity did not arise from anything the batter did.

MLB Rule 10.04 describes determining runs batted in for the official scorer, but does not mention this scenario because it has nothing to do with the batter's actions.

Rule 10.13 describes wild pitches and passed balls.

Edit: if the passed ball was Ball 4, and the bases were loaded, the runner on third is entitled to advance and score; in this case the batter should get an RBI. If the runner from second attempts to score and does, no RBI, because he wasn't entitled and is taking the risk of being put out.

2007-05-05 10:48:03 · answer #1 · answered by Chipmaker Authentic 7 · 2 0

No. Now if he bunted the ball & became out at 1st and a run scored, that ought to correctly be an RBI. Or a fly ball to the outfield that ratings a run is an RBI. If a batter swings at strike 3 and the catcher drops it, the batter runs to first i imagine because he in hassle-free words were given on base because of an blunders, he would not get helpful or an RBI.

2016-11-25 20:46:43 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

No. The only way to get an RBI without hitting the ball is by getting a walk or getting on base with Catcher's Interference.

2007-05-05 10:45:42 · answer #3 · answered by jpbofohio 6 · 1 0

no that would be an error. and Rbi must come from a hit ball

2007-05-05 10:44:11 · answer #4 · answered by mikeyplocky 2 · 0 0

no it would be an error. nobody gets an rbi if its a error.

2007-05-05 10:46:19 · answer #5 · answered by Dodgerblue 5 · 0 1

Yes.... my answer is the same as all of the above.
Go A-Rodd & the Yankeessss !!!

2007-05-05 10:51:57 · answer #6 · answered by noodleshopceo 2 · 0 0

no RBI

2007-05-05 11:47:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

no..your still at bat......

2007-05-05 10:53:12 · answer #8 · answered by Lefty 7 · 0 0

no

2007-05-05 10:47:26 · answer #9 · answered by [.Keleigh.] 2 · 0 0

NO

2007-05-05 13:34:07 · answer #10 · answered by Library Eyes 6 · 0 0

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