2007-05-05 10:41:27 · 3 answers · asked by sokrates 4 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Tee,
In the English language, "vice" does not always have moral connotations or denotations. The word can refer to a slight personal failing or a defect. the use of virtue and vice does not necessarily signal that the speaker employing the terms means to indicate that moral distinctions are being made. But thanks for bringing this subject up on YA.
2007-05-05 12:36:08 · update #1
I think it's a virtue, it is a gift, but like any gift, it can be used for vice, unfortunately.
2007-05-05 10:48:49 · answer #1 · answered by Hot Coco Puff 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
To be lucid is to be coherent. How can lucidity be a moral issue? If you're referring to creative impulses that lack of ludidity can produce (via mind altering substances, insanity, etc.), then I'm sure you could make some type of argument that there is some kind of good that can come out of incoherence. But that has nothing to do with virtue/vice.
2007-05-05 19:29:49 · answer #2 · answered by teeleecee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, its a virtue. How its used determins vice or not.
2007-05-05 20:28:04 · answer #3 · answered by Izen G 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋