What do you mean it is "mutually exclusive." You have a 1/6 probability of rolling a 6 on the first roll too. The probability of rolling a 6 each time is 1/216. There are 215 other ways how the scenario could play out, including rolling a different number on the first roll.
2007-05-05 01:09:16
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answer #1
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answered by Shawn L 2
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No, you can't ignore the first roll. Ignoring the first roll means you don't care what the first roll is. What if you don't get 6 in your first roll? The answer should be 1/6*1/6*1/6 = 1/216
However, if the question is, what is the probability of getting the same number each time, then the answer will be 1/36. This is because the chance of getting three of 1's,2's,3's,4's,5's and 6's are the same.
Then, the probability will become 6* 1/216 = 1/36.
Or you can use your mutual exclusive theory and ignore the first roll, hence 1/6*1/6 = 1/36
2007-05-05 01:10:57
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answer #2
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answered by pateoh 4
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Pls the Right answer is 1 in 216. Ask Pierre de Fermat and Pascal Blaise who jointly invented THE PROBABILITY THEORY. The problem you are having is that you dont understand the types of probability. The question you are posting is INDEPENDENT probability where the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of the next event. The outcome of the 1st rolling is INDEPENDENT or will not affect the outcome of the 2nd rolling, the same thing with the 3rd rolling. So each outcome is 1 in 6 into 3 times= 1/216. Mutually exclusive events are the events that CANNOT occur together at the same time and their occurence together is always ZERO. e.g. if you are rolling a die, you cannot have a 2 and a 6 occuring at the same time, Pls try it and see. So the probability of having a 6 in 3 tosses in this type of probability = 1/6+1/6+1/6=3/6 = 1/2. So pls read more about thes types of probability. Can u spot the different between MUTUALLY EXCLUSIVE , the two events have decided to EXCLUDE each other and INDEPENDENT probability?
2007-05-05 01:53:53
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answer #3
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answered by Joshua V 1
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I roll a dice 3 times. What is the probability of getting a 6 each time ?
1/6*1/6*1/6=1/216
2007-05-05 01:12:13
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answer #4
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answered by iyiogrenci 6
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First, for the benefit of some of those who previously responded, the word "dice" is plural.
The probabilty of rolling a six on any single roll is 1 in 6. The probability of rolling a six three times in three rolls is 1 in 216 (6 * 3).
2007-05-05 01:27:58
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answer #5
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answered by Chris Z 1
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The problem is not very clear.
If you roll a "dice", are you rolling " a pair of dice" or just one "die"?
If you throw only one die, the probability of getting a 6 each time is only 1/6.
But the probability of getting a 6 on these 3 rolls is 1/2.
3 rolls x 1/6 = 3/6 = 1/2
2007-05-05 03:20:30
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answer #6
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answered by detektibgapo 5
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1/6 x 1/6 x 1/6 = one in 216
2007-05-05 01:07:06
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answer #7
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answered by mikedotcom 5
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exactly what others said, it should be 1/216. I wonder why the answer is 1/36 ( i thought i am wrong at first until i saw the others' answer).
2007-05-12 21:33:55
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answer #8
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answered by cOPYcAT 5
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no, i learned that since each chance af getting a 6 is 1/6, and you have to get it 3 time in a row, it is 1/6x1/6x1/6, or 216
2007-05-05 01:07:34
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answer #9
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answered by T.L. 2
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its 1/6*1/6*1/6
so the answer is 1/216
2007-05-12 21:48:06
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answer #10
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answered by mazen 1
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