If you attempt to steal a base and the ball gets by the catcher does it still count as a steal?
2007-05-04 17:54:23 · 12 answers · asked by gekkman34 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
MLB Rule 10.07 Stolen Bases And Caught Stealing:
The official scorer shall credit a stolen base to a runner whenever the runner advances one base unaided by a hit, a putout, an error, a force-out, a fielder's choice, a passed ball, a wild pitch or a balk, subject to the following:
(a) When a runner starts for the next base before the pitcher delivers the ball and the pitch results in what ordinarily is scored a wild pitch or passed ball, the official scorer shall credit the runner with a stolen base and shall not charge the misplay, unless, as a result of the misplay, the stealing runner advances an extra base, or another runner also advances, in which case the official scorer shall score the wild pitch or passed ball as well as the stolen base.
And while we're here, part (g) covers the famous "defensive indifference" -- it's actually scored a fielder's choice.
(g) The official scorer shall not score a stolen base when a runner advances solely because of the defensive team's indifference to the runner’s advance. The official scorer shall score such a play as a fielder's choice.
2007-05-04 18:44:28 · answer #1 · answered by Chipmaker Authentic 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you were running on the pitch then yes and then if the ball gets past the catcher enough to allow you to advance another base it would be a steal and a passed ball (or wild pitch).
If you do not attempt to advance until the ball gets past the catcher then it is a pass ball or wild pitch (depending on if the catcher should have had it).
2007-05-04 18:13:39 · answer #2 · answered by godscilla 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's stolen base if you were stealing intentionally, and the ball gets by the catcher due to a wild pitch or passed ball. It's not a steal if the ball gets by the catcher due an error by him. (ex. He drops a pitch-out)
You get a steal of 2nd, but not 3rd, if you advance due to the PB or WP
2007-05-04 21:02:05 · answer #3 · answered by H.E. G 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Almost never is a player used on the 25 man roster just to pinch run and steal a base, even in the world series. Roberts, who stole the famous base off Mo in 2004, didnt purely steal. He is also a decent outfielder. In addition, a player with speed needs to be able to get on base to steal. Even if he PHs only, if the game goes into extra innings and he has to go up at bat and he cant hit, they would have wasted a bench spot and a starting lineup guy to steal a base. A good base stealer needs to be at minimum someone who can get on base or play well defensively. Without either, dont hope on making the Show.
2016-05-20 23:50:19 · answer #4 · answered by malisa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you had taken off before the pitcher threw the ball, yes. If not, you've advanced on a wild pitch or a passed ball, depending upon the official scorer's decision on the non-play at the plate.
2007-05-04 18:07:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think so I think a past ball would be charged to the catcher and the runner wouldn't get the steal even though he could advance.
2007-05-04 17:57:58 · answer #6 · answered by Giants Fan! 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
If you had the obvious intent of attempting to steal then yes, I think it does count as a steal.
2007-05-04 18:03:04 · answer #7 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you were running on the pitch, yes. If not, and you advance, it is either a passed ball or wild pitch.
2007-05-04 17:58:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends if you were running on the pitch or not .If not, then it would be a wild pitch or passed ball.
2007-05-05 02:53:02 · answer #9 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As long as you are going at the start of the pitch, yes it does.
2007-05-04 22:49:34 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋