does the count reset?
2007-05-04 16:04:24 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
It depends on how many outs there are, if there are 0,1 or 2 outs then the count stays the same, and the batter continues to bat. If there are three outs then the batter is first batter in the next inning and the count resets to 0 - 0.
2007-05-04 16:37:21 · answer #1 · answered by Amanda 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the caught stealing is the third out of the inning, yes, when the next inning begins. Otherwise, the count doesn't reset, but it will be 3-2 if the batter took a ball and it will be a strike out-throw out double play if the pitch was a strike or if the batter offered at the pitch.
Please see the links below for more information about various baseball situations, stats, erc.
2007-05-04 17:43:55 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The count only resets if the runner getting thrown out makes the 3rd out. If that is the case, the batter who was up at the time of the last out, will be the first batter in the next inning, but his count will be rest to 0-0. If the runner getting thrown out is not the 3rd out, the batters count will remain the same.
2007-05-04 16:46:50 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The base runner is out. If its the third out, and the inning is over the same batter returns to bat and the count resets in the next inning. If the base runner makes it a first or second out the batter continues with the count remaining at 2 - 2
2007-05-04 16:18:40 · answer #4 · answered by travandtracsmom 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No. Every pitch counts in baseball, even deliberate "pitchouts".
If the pitch was a called strike or swung at and cleanly missed or swung at, grazed and caught, then the batter has been struck out and the player out stealing has run into a double play, 1--2--4 or 1--2--6.
If the thrown ball was called a ball, the player trying to steal is out stealing, and the count will next be 3--2 on the batter if he did not offer at the ball.
2007-05-04 17:59:46 · answer #5 · answered by Robert David M 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends. If the runner that was thrown out is the 3rd out then the inning is over and the batter leads off the next inning with a fresh count. If it's not the 3rd out then the count is still 2-2.
2007-05-04 16:46:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Assuming the caught stealing is not the 3rd out, then the count remains the same. If it was the 3rd out, then the batter would come up the following inning with a fresh, 0-0 count.
2007-05-05 04:58:22 · answer #7 · answered by JerH1 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Occupied is defined by when the play starts so first base is occupied for the purpose of your example. Hence, if there are less than two out, the batter is out on a strike out with no play required at first. The runner steals at his own peril of being thrown out. The catcer can make a play on him at second base. If there are two out the batter can try for first and must be put out when the third strike is dropped regardless of whether first base is occupied or not.
2016-05-20 23:24:41 · answer #8 · answered by jamey 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only if there was 2 outs and the guy got out. If the player was safe, then it would not reset. So the guy would bat with an 0-0 count if the guy got out stealing next inning
2007-05-04 17:16:10 · answer #9 · answered by ryan l 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there are two outs and the pitch is a ball then the count will be reset for the next inning.
2007-05-04 16:34:12 · answer #10 · answered by Crowley09 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋